Professor Calvin Johnson’s argument that the wealth tax proposed by Senator Elizabeth Warren would clearly be constitutional, made in the Summer 2019 ABA Tax Times, is misleading in several respects. (Senator Bernie Sanders has now also proposed a wealth tax, and I assume Professor Johnson would see no constitutional problems with that proposal as well. Indeed, Sanders cites the Johnson essay.) The misleading aspects run from the title to how Johnson interprets the direct-tax clauses in the Constitution to a bewildering failure to discuss a Supreme Court decision from 2012, National Federation of Independent Business v. Sebelius (NFIB), in which Chief Justice John Roberts advanced propositions that contradict Johnson’s argument about the meaning of direct taxation.
The Article’s Title
Misleading proposition number one is the title, “A Wealth Tax Is Constitutional.” (I suppose the title might not have been Johnson’s choice.) Of course a wealth tax can be constitutional; that’s not news. The congressional taxing power set out in Article I, section 8, is quite broad, permitting Congress to tax almost anything. The question isn’t whether Congress can impose a tax on wealth; the question is whether such a tax would be a direct tax that, under two constitutional provisions, would have to be apportioned among the states on the basis of population. For example, the residents of a state with one-twentieth of the national population would have to pay, in the aggregate, one-twentieth of any direct tax. (To make Johnson’s intended point, the title should have been “An Unapportioned Wealth Tax Is Constitutional.”) If a wealth tax would have to be apportioned, it couldn’t work as Senators Warren and Sanders want it to. To make the numbers come out right, it would have to have, as Johnson notes, “substantially higher tax rates in poorer states” than in richer ones. As Johnson indicated, that would be absurd.
The Meaning of the Direct-Tax Apportionment Rule
Misleading proposition number two is that the potentially absurd result—“higher tax rates in poorer states”—is an “injustice.” The point of apportionment was to make direct taxation difficult, to limit the national taxing power. If apportionment would make a proposed direct tax unjust, Congress generally shouldn’t enact it. No direct tax, no injustice. And direct taxation wasn’t supposed to be the primary revenue source for the United States. It was to be used only in emergencies like wartime, when revenue needs trump arguably unjust effects.
Wealth taxes, Publius, and Hylton v. United States
From the beginning, the Supreme Court assumed that a tax on real property is a direct tax—as distinguished from indirect taxes, generally taxes on articles of consumption—as had Alexander Hamilton writing as Publius in The Federalist. In Hylton v. United States, decided in 1796, the Court concluded that a national tax on carriages wasn’t direct and therefore didn’t have to be apportioned. But the three justices who wrote opinions agreed that a tax on land—the most significant form of wealth at the time—was direct. For example, Justice Samuel Chase said that the direct taxes “contemplated by the Constitution, are only two, to wit, a capitation, or poll tax, simply, without regard to property, profession, or any other circumstance; and a tax on LAND.”
Professor Johnson once treated Hylton as gospel because he liked the way the justices defined “direct tax” narrowly. The justices, founders all, were, Johnson wrote, “giants [who] walked upon the earth,” and what they said in Hylton was unquestionably correct: they “knew the Constitution far better than we do.” Apparently their stature has recently shrunk, however; now we must ignore what they wrote in Hylton about land taxes’ being direct. In contrast to Johnson, I believe the Hylton Court’s understanding of “direct tax” was too narrow, but even that narrow conception encompassed taxes on real property.
And it wasn’t just Publius and Supreme Court justices who understood that a tax on real property was direct. Between 1798 and 1861 Congress enacted several national real-estate taxes, all of which were apportioned. Congress took it for granted that apportionment was required.
Was apportionment intended to be irrelevant?
Professor Johnson has a response to what I’ve just described, of course, which brings us to misleading proposition number three. He argues that apportionment of land taxes was permissible in the early years of the republic because “[i]t was presumed ... that real estate value was equal per capita across the states, and that a real estate tax would qualify as a direct tax.” In that case, apportionment was acceptable because it didn’t lead to injustice. But, he says, “the consequences of apportionment by population when the per capita tax base is uneven rebuts the use of apportionment.” He adds:
Real estate and wealth taxes ceased to be direct taxes because per capita wealth or land value so varied among the states that apportionment by population would require drastically higher tax rates in poorer states. Drastically higher tax rates required by apportionment by population entails that apportionment is not required because the tax is not direct.
So what was considered a direct tax in the late eighteenth century isn’t necessarily one today: “Over time taxes that could not reasonably be apportioned among the states were expelled from being considered . . . direct tax[es], by ordinary language usage or Supreme Court decision.”
Ordinary language usage? Come on. Think about what Professor Johnson is claiming: the apportionment requirement is to be imposed only when it doesn’t matter—only, that is, when the tax base is spread across the country in a way that is proportionate to population. What kind of rule is that? Why are direct taxes even mentioned in the Constitution, if they would, by definition, meet the apportionment requirement anyway and, for that matter, satisfy the uniformity rule that applies to indirect taxes—“duties, imposts, and excises”? (To be sure, capitation taxes, specifically denominated as direct taxes in the Constitution—and confirmed by Hylton—are close to being automatically apportioned, if it’s understood that a capitation is a lump-sum head tax. Even if that understanding is right, however, something I question, apportionment wouldn’t have been meaningless for a capitation when the Constitution was ratified.) In form—in ordinary language usage—the apportionment rule is a limitation on congressional power. It’s because the results of apportionment might be absurd that Congress generally shouldn’t enact direct taxes, particularly those with sectional effects. (Direct taxes aimed at property value concentrated in one part of the country are supposed to be disfavored.)
A special rule limiting Congress’s power was necessary because direct taxation was thought to be much more dangerous than indirect taxes, as Hamilton argued in Federalist 21.
It is a signal advantage of taxes on articles of consumption [i.e., indirect taxes] that they contain in their own nature a security against excess. They prescribe their own limit, which cannot be exceeded without defeating the end proposed—that is, an extension of the revenue. ... If duties are too high, they lessen the consumption; the collection is eluded; and the product to the treasury is not so great as when they are confined within proper and moderate bounds. This forms a complete barrier against any material oppression of the citizens by taxes of this class, and is itself a natural limitation of the power of imposing them.
In contrast, direct taxes contain no “natural limitation” on their use, and an explicit limitation on Congress’s authority to enact them was therefore thought to be desirable.
In a branch of taxation where no limits to the discretion of the government are to be found in the nature of the thing, the establishment of a fixed rule, not incompatible with the end, may be attended with fewer inconveniences than to leave that discretion altogether at large.
And, as Hamilton wrote in Federalist 36,
An actual census or enumeration of the people must furnish the rule, a circumstance which effectually shuts the door to partiality or oppression. The abuse of this power of [real-estate] taxation seems to have been provided against with guarded circumspection.
The Johnson understanding turns the apportionment rule on its head. His position also implies that the founders, those giants, were engaged in subterfuge: drafting and ratifying a document that in form seemed to constrain the direct-taxing power, but using words not intended to have meaningful effect. Does anyone other than Calvin Johnson think the Constitution would have been ratified if it had been understood that the taxing power was nearly unlimited?
The second direct-tax clause
Professor Johnson quotes and discusses the direct-tax clause in Article I, section 9, but there’s a second direct-tax clause in the Constitution. (Some commentators and Supreme Court justices seem to forget this.) In Article I, section 2, apportionment of direct taxes is tied to apportionment of representatives in the House: “Representatives and direct Taxes shall be apportioned among the several States which may be included within the Union, according to their respective Numbers.” That language makes it hard to conclude that the apportionment rule was intended to be meaningless. A serious compromise was involved: states entitled to more representation in the House because of their large populations would also bear a larger share of any direct-tax liability.