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The Tax Lawyer

The Tax Lawyer: Summer 2021

Recent Developments in Federal Income Taxation: The Year 2020

Bruce Alan McGovern, Cassady V Brewer, and James Delaney

Summary

  • This Article primarily focuses on subjects of broad general interest—tax accounting rules, determination of gross income, allowable deductions, treatment of capital gains and losses, corporate and partnership taxation, exempt organizations, and procedure and penalties.
  • Noteworthy 2020 administrative rulings and regulations promulgated by the Treasury Department and the Service.
  • Discussed legislation includes the Coronavirus Aid, Relief, and Economic Security Act (CARES Act), The Paycheck Protection Program Flexibility Act of 2020 (PPP Flexibility Act), and the The Consolidated Appropriations Act.
Recent Developments in Federal Income Taxation: The Year 2020
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Abstract

This Article summarizes and provides context to understand the most important developments in federal income taxation for the year 2020. The items discussed primarily consist of the following: (1) significant amendments to the Internal Revenue Code; (2) important judicial decisions; and (3) noteworthy administrative rulings and regulations promulgated by the Treasury Department and the Service. This Article primarily focuses on subjects of broad general interest—tax accounting rules, determination of gross income, allowable deductions, treatment of capital gains and losses, corporate and partnership taxation, exempt organizations, and procedure and penalties. This Article generally does not address items relating to federal estate and gift taxation, income taxation of trusts and estates, qualified pension and profit-sharing plans, international taxation, or specialized industries such as banking, insurance, and financial services.

Introductory Notes

The year 2020 yielded many significant federal income tax developments. The Treasury Department and the Service provided an abundance of administrative guidance, and the courts issued many important judicial decisions. However, many of the most significant developments in federal income taxation during 2020 were legislative. The Families First Coronavirus Response Act, enacted on March 18, 2020, provides businesses with tax credits to cover certain costs of providing employees with required paid sick leave and expanded family and medical leave for reasons related to the coronavirus (COVID-19) pandemic through December 31, 2020. The Coronavirus Aid, Relief, and Economic Security Act (CARES Act), enacted on March 27, 2020, also in response to the COVID-19 pandemic, is economic stimulus legislation that provides targeted tax relief for individuals and businesses, including, albeit not limited to, (1) a one-time rebate to taxpayers; (2) modification of the tax treatment of certain retirement fund withdrawals and charitable contributions; (3) a delay of employer payroll taxes and taxes paid by certain corporations; and (4) other changes to the tax treatment of business income, interest deductions, and net operating losses. The Paycheck Protection Program Flexibility Act of 2020 (PPP Flexibility Act), enacted on June 5, 2020, modifies several aspects of the forgivable Paycheck Protection Program loans authorized by the CARES Act and made available through the Small Business Administration (commonly referred to as PPP loans), including a repeal of the rule that precluded employers whose PPP loans are forgiven from deferring deposits of the employer’s share of Social Security tax. The Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2021, enacted on December 27, 2020, made several Code provisions permanent that previously had been temporarily extended for many years, temporarily extended several expiring provisions, and provided tax relief to those in areas affected by certain natural disasters. This Article summarizes the 2020 legislative changes that, in our judgment, are the most important; discusses the major administrative guidance issued in 2020; and examines significant judicial decisions rendered in 2020.

As a service to its readers, The Tax Lawyer anticipates publishing annual editions of these materials to provide tax practitioners, academics, and other professionals a comprehensive, yearly summary of the most important recent developments in federal income taxation.

I. Accounting

A. Accounting Methods

There were no significant developments regarding this topic during 2020.

B. Inventories

There were no significant developments regarding this topic during 2020.

C. Installment Method

There were no significant developments regarding this topic during 2020.

D. Year of Inclusion or Deduction

There were no significant developments regarding this topic during 2020.

II. Business Income and Deductions

A. Income

There were no significant developments regarding this topic during 2020.

B. Deductible Expenses Versus Capitalization

There were no significant developments regarding this topic during 2020.

C. Reasonable Compensation

There were no significant developments regarding this topic during 2020.

D. Miscellaneous Deductions

1. Rats! We knew that we should have been architects or engineers instead of tax advisors.

Section 11011 of the 2017 Tax Cuts and Jobs Act (TCJA) added section 199A, thereby creating an unprecedented, new deduction for trade or business (and certain other) income earned by sole proprietors, partners of partnerships (including members of LLCs taxed as partnerships or as sole proprietorships), and shareholders of S corporations. Section 101 of the Consol-idated Appropriations Act, 2018 (CAA, 2018), signed by the President on March 23, 2018, amended section 199A principally to address issues related to agricultural or horticultural cooperatives. New section 199A is intended to put owners of flow-through entities (but also including sole proprietorships) on par with C corporations that will benefit from the new reduced 21% corporate tax rate; however, in our view, the new provision actually makes many flow-through businesses even more tax-favored than they were under pre-TCJA law.

Big Picture. Oversimplifying a bit to preserve our readers’ (and the Authors’) sanity, new section 199A essentially grants a special 20% deduction for “qualified business income” (principally, trade or business income, but not wages) of certain taxpayers (but not most personal service providers except those falling below an income threshold). In effect then, new section 199A reduces the top marginal rate of certain taxpayers with respect to their trade or business income (but not wages) by 20% (i.e., the maximum 37% rate becomes 29.6% on qualifying business income assuming the taxpayer is not excluded from the benefits of the new statute). Most high-earning (over $415,000 taxable income if married filing jointly) professional service providers (including lawyers, accountants, investment advisors, physicians, etc., but not architects or engineers) are excluded from the benefits of new section 199A. Of course, the actual operation of new section 199A is considerably more complicated, but the highlights (lowlights?) are as summarized above.

Effective dates. Section 199A applies to taxable years beginning after 2017 and before 2026.

Initial Observations. Our initial, high-level observations of new section 199A are set forth below:

How section 199A applies. New section 199A is applied at the individual level of any qualifying taxpayer by first requiring a calculation of taxable income excluding the deduction allowed by section 199A and then allowing a special deduction of 20% of qualified business income against taxable income to determine a taxpayer’s ultimate federal income tax liability. Thus, the deduction is not an above-the-line deduction allowed in determining adjusted gross income; it is a deduction that reduces taxable income. The deduction is available both to those who itemize deductions and those who take the standard deduction. The deduction cannot exceed the amount of the taxpayer’s taxable income reduced by net capital gain. The section 199A deduction applies for income tax purposes; it does not reduce self-employment taxes. Query what those states that piggyback off federal taxable income will do with respect to new section 199A. Presumably, the deduction will be disallowed for state income tax purposes.

Eligible taxpayers. Section 199A(a) provides that the deduction is available to “a taxpayer other than a corporation.” The deduction of section 199A is available to individuals, estates, and trusts. For S corporation shareholders and partners, the deduction applies at the shareholder or partner level. Section 199A(f)(4) directs the Treasury Department to issue regulations that address the application of section 199A to tiered entities.

Qualified trades or businesses (or, what’s so special about architects and engineers?)—Section 199A(d). One component of the section 199A deduction is 20% of the taxpayer’s qualified business income. To have qualified business income, the taxpayer must be engaged in a qualified trade or business, which is defined as any trade or business other than (1) the trade or business of performing services as an employee or (2) a specified service trade or business. A specified service trade or business is defined (by reference to section 1202(e)(3)(A)) as “any trade or business involving the performance of services in the fields of health, . . . law, accounting, actuarial science, performing arts, consulting, athletics, financial services, brokerage services, or any trade or business where the principal asset of such trade or business is the reputation or skill of 1 or more of its employees.” Architects and engineers must be special because they are included under section 1202(e)(3)(A) but are specifically excluded from the definition of a specified service trade or business. There is no reasoned explanation for this exclusion in the 2017 TCJA Conference Report.

Note: Taxpayers whose taxable income, determined without regard to the section 199A deduction, is below a specified threshold are not subject to the exclusion for specified service trades or businesses (i.e., these taxpayers can take the section 199A deduction even if they are doctors, lawyers, accountants, etc.). The thresholds are $315,000 for married taxpayers filing jointly and $157,500 for all other taxpayers. (These figures will be adjusted for inflation in years beginning after 2018.) Taxpayers whose taxable income exceeds these thresholds are subject to a phased reduction of the benefit of the section 199A deduction until taxable income reaches $415,000 for joint filers and $207,500 for all other taxpayers, at which point the service business cannot be treated as a qualified trade or business.

Qualified business income—Section 199A(c). One component of the section 199A deduction is 20% of the taxpayer’s qualified business income, which is generally defined as the net amount from a qualified trade or business of items of income, gain, deduction, and loss included or allowed in determining taxable income. Excluded from the definition are (1) income not effectively connected with the conduct of a trade or business in the United States, (2) specified investment-related items of income, gain, deduction, or loss, (3) amounts paid to an S corporation shareholder that are reasonable compensation, (4) guaranteed payments to a partner for services, (5) to the extent provided in regulations, payments to a partner for services rendered other than in the partner’s capacity as a partner, and (6) qualified REIT dividends or qualified publicly traded partnership income (because these two categories are separate components of the section 199A deduction).

Determination of the amount of the section 199A deduction—Section 199A(a)–(b). Given the much-touted simplification thrust of the TCJA, determining the amount of a taxpayer’s section 199A deduction is surprisingly complex. One way to approach the calculation is to think of the section 199A deduction as the sum of two buckets, subject to one limitation. Bucket 1 is the sum of the following from all of the taxpayer’s qualified trades or businesses, determined separately for each qualified trade or business: the lesser of (1) 20% of the qualified trade or business income with respect to the trade or business or (2) the greater of (a) 50% of the W–2 wages with respect to the qualified trade or business or (b) the sum of 25% of the W–2 wages with respect to the qualified trade or business plus 2.5% of the unadjusted basis immediately after acquisition of all qualified property. Bucket 2 is 20% of the sum of the taxpayer’s qualified REIT dividends and qualified publicly traded partnership income. The limitation is that the sum of Buckets 1 and 2 cannot exceed the amount of the taxpayer’s taxable income reduced by the taxpayer’s net capital gain. Thus, a taxpayer’s section 199A deduction is determined by adding together Buckets 1 and 2 and applying the limitation.

Note: The W-2 wages and capital limitation does not apply to taxpayers whose taxable income is below the $157,500/$315,000 thresholds mentioned earlier in connection with the definition of a qualified trade or business. For taxpayers below the thresholds, Bucket 1 is simply 20% of the qualified trade or business income. For taxpayers above the thresholds, the wage and capital limitation phases in and fully applies once taxable income reaches $207,500/$415,000.

Revised rules for cooperatives and their patrons. Section 101 of the CCA, 2018 amended section 199A to fix what was commonly referred to as the “grain glitch.” Under section 199A as originally enacted, farmers selling goods to agricultural cooperatives were permitted to claim a deduction effectively equal to 20% of gross sales, while farmers selling goods to independent buyers effectively could claim a deduction equal to 20% of net income. Some independent buyers argued that this difference created an unintended market preference for producers to sell to agricultural cooperatives. Under the amended version of section 199A, agricultural cooperatives would determine their deduction under rules set forth in section 199A(g) that are similar to those in old (and now repealed) section 199. The section 199A deduction of an agricultural cooperative is equal to nine percent of the lesser of (1) the cooperative’s qualified production activities income or (2) taxable income calculated without regard to specified items. The cooperative’s section 199A deduction cannot exceed 50% of the W-2 wages paid of the cooperative. A cooperative can pass its section 199A deduction through to its farmer patrons. In addition, the legislation modified the original version of section 199A to eliminate the 20% deduction for qualified cooperative dividends received by a taxpayer other than a corporation. Instead, under the amended statute, taxpayers are entitled to a deduction equal to the lesser of 20% of net income recognized from agricultural and horticultural commodity sales or their overall taxable income, subject to a wage and capital limitation.

An incentive for business profits rather than wages. Given a choice, most taxpayers who qualify for the section 199A deduction would prefer to be compensated as an independent contractor (i.e., 1099 contractor) rather than as an employee (i.e., W-2 wages), unless employer-provided benefits dictate otherwise because, to the extent such compensation is “qualified business income,” a taxpayer may benefit from the 20% deduction authorized by section 199A.

The “Edwards/Gingrich loophole” for S corporations becomes more attractive. New section 199A exacerbates the games currently played by S corporation shareholders regarding minimizing compensation income (salaries and bonuses) and maximizing residual income from the operations of the S corporation. For qualifying S corporation shareholders, minimizing compensation income will not only save on the Medicare portion of payroll taxes, but also maximize any deduction available under new section 199A.

a. Let the games begin! The Treasury Department and the Service have issued final Regulations under section 199A. The Treasury Department and the Service have finalized Proposed Regulations under section 199A. The Regulations address the following six general areas. In addition, Regulation section 1.643(f)-1 provides anti-avoidance rules for multiple trusts.

Operational rules. Regulation section 1.199A-1 provides guidance on the determination of the section 199A deduction. The operational rules define certain key terms, including qualified business income, qualified REIT dividends, qualified publicly traded partnership income, specified service trade or business, and W-2 wages. According to Regulation section 1.199A-1(b)(14), a “trade or business” is “a trade or business that is a trade or business under section 162 (a section 162 trade or business) other than performing services as an employee.” In addition, if tangible or intangible property is rented or licensed to a trade or business conducted by the individual or a “relevant pass-through entity” (a partnership or S corporation owned directly or indirectly by at least one individual, estate, or trust) that is commonly controlled (within the meaning of Regulation section 1.199A-1(b)(1)(i)), then the rental or licensing activity is treated as a trade or business for purposes of section 199A even if the rental or licensing activity would not, on its own, rise to the level of a trade or business.

The operational rules also provide guidance on the computation of the section 199A deduction for those with taxable income below and above the $157,500/$315,000 thresholds mentioned earlier, as well as rules for determining the carryover of negative amounts of qualified business income and negative amounts of combined qualified REIT dividends and qualified publicly traded partnership income. The Regulations clarify that, if a taxpayer has an overall loss from combined qualified REIT dividends and qualified publicly traded partnership income, the overall loss does not affect the amount of the taxpayer’s qualified business income and is instead carried forward separately to offset qualified REIT dividends and qualified publicly traded partnership income in the succeeding year. The operational rules also provide rules that apply in certain special situations, such as Regulation section 1.199A-1(e)(1), which clarifies that the section 199A deduction has no effect on the adjusted basis of a partner’s partnership interest or the adjusted basis of an S corporation shareholder’s stock basis.

Determination of W-2 Wages and the Unadjusted Basis of Property. Regulation section 1.199A-2 provides rules for determining the amount of W-2 wages and the unadjusted basis immediately after acquisition (UBIA) of qualified property. The amount of W-2 wages and the UBIA of qualified property are relevant to taxpayers whose taxable incomes exceed the $157,500/$315,000 thresholds mentioned earlier. For taxpayers with taxable income in excess of these limits, one component of their section 199A deduction (Bucket 1 described earlier) is the lesser of (1) 20% of the qualified trade or business income with respect to the trade or business or (2) the greater of (a) 50% of the W-2 wages with respect to the qualified trade or business or (b) the sum of 25% of the W-2 wages with respect to the qualified trade or business plus 2.5% of the UBIA of all qualified property. The rules of Regulation section 1.199A-2 regarding W-2 wages generally follow the rules under former section 199 (the now-repealed domestic production activities deduction) but, unlike the rules under former section 199, the W-2 wage limitation in section 199A applies separately for each trade or business.

The amount of W-2 wages allocable to each trade or business generally is determined according to the amount of deductions for those wages allocated to each trade or business. Wages must be “properly allocable” to qualified business income to be taken into account for purposes of section 199A, which means that the associated wage expense must be taken into account in determining qualified business income. In the case of partnerships and S corporations, a partner or S corporation shareholder’s allocable share of wages must be determined in the same manner as that person’s share of wage expenses. The Regulations provide special rules for the application of the W-2 wage limitation to situations in which a taxpayer acquires or disposes of a trade or business. Simultaneously with the issuance of the Regulations, the Service issued Revenue Procedure 2019-11, which provides guidance on methods for calculating W–2 wages for purposes of section 199A.

The Regulations also provide guidance on determining the UBIA of qualified property. Regulation section 1.199A-2(c)(1) restates the statutory definition of qualified property, which is depreciable tangible property that is (1) held by, and available for use in, a trade or business at the close of the taxable year, (2) used in the production of qualified business income, and (3) for which the depreciable period has not ended before the close of the taxable year. The Regulations clarify that UBIA is determined without regard to both depreciation and amounts that a taxpayer elects to treat as an expense (e.g., pursuant to section 179, 179B, or 179C) and that UBIA is determined as of the date the property is placed in service. Special rules address property transferred with a principal purpose of increasing the section 199A deduction, like-kind exchanges under section 1031, involuntary conversions under section 1033, subsequent improvements to qualified property, and allocation of UBIA among partners and S corporation shareholders.

Qualified Business Income, Qualified REIT Dividends, and Qualified Publicly Traded Partnership Income. Regulation section 1.199A-3 provides guidance on the determination of the components of the section 199A deduction: qualified business income (QBI), qualified REIT dividends, and qualified publicly traded partnership income. The Regulations generally restate the statutory definitions of these terms.

Among other significant rules, the Regulations clarify that (1) gain or loss treated as ordinary income under section 751 is considered attributable to the trade or business conducted by the partnership and therefore can be QBI if the other requirements of section 199A are satisfied, (2) section 1231 gain or loss is not QBI if the section 1231 “hotchpot” analysis results in these items becoming long-term capital gains and losses, and that section 1231 gain or loss is QBI if the section 1231 analysis results in these items becoming ordinary (assuming all other requirements of section 199A are met), (3) losses previously suspended under sections 465, 469, 704(d), or 1366(d) that are allowed in the current year are treated as items attributable to the trade or business in the current year, except that such losses carried over from taxable years ending before January 1, 2018, are not taken into account in a later year for purposes of computing QBI, and (4) net operating losses carried over from prior years are not taken into account in determining QBI for the current year, except that losses disallowed in a prior year by section 461(l) (the provision enacted by the TCJA that denies excess business losses for noncorporate taxpayers) are taken into account in determining QBI for the current year.

Aggregation Rules. Regulation section 1.199A-4 permits, but does not require, taxpayers to aggregate trades or businesses for purposes of determining the section 199A deduction if the requirements in Regulation section 1.199A-4(b)(1) are satisfied. The Treasury Department and the Service declined to adopt the existing aggregation rules in Regulation section 1.469-4 that apply for purposes of the passive activity loss rules on the basis that those rules, which apply to “activities” rather than trades or businesses and which serve purposes somewhat different from those of section 199A, are inappropriate. Instead, the Regulations permit aggregation if the following five requirements are met: (1) the same person, or group of persons, directly or indirectly owns 50% or more of each of the businesses to be aggregated, (2) the required level of ownership exists for the majority of the taxable year in which the items attributable to the trade or business are included in income, (3) all of the items attributable to each trade or business to be aggregated are reported on returns with the same taxable year (not taking into account short taxable years), (4) none of the aggregated businesses is a specified service trade or business, and (5) the trades or businesses to be aggregated meet at least two of three factors designed to demonstrate that the businesses really are part of a larger, integrated trade or business. The Regulations also impose a consistency rule under which an individual who aggregates trades or businesses must consistently report the aggregated trades or businesses in subsequent taxable years. In addition, the Regulations require that taxpayers attach to the relevant return a disclosure statement that identifies the trades or businesses that are aggregated.

Specified Service Trade or Business. Regulation section 1.199A-5 provides extensive guidance on the meaning of the term “specified service trade or business.” For purposes of section 199A, a qualified trade or business is any trade or business other than (1) the trade or business of performing services as an employee or (2) a specified service trade or business. Section 199A(d)(2) defines a specified service trade or business (by reference to section 1202(e)(3)(A)) as “any trade or business involving the performance of services in the fields of health, . . . law, accounting, actuarial science, performing arts, consulting, athletics, financial services, brokerage services, or any trade or business where the principal asset of such trade or business is the reputation or skill of 1 or more of its employees.” Architects and engineers are excluded. For taxpayers whose taxable incomes are below the $157,500/$315,000 thresholds mentioned earlier, a business is a qualified trade or business even if it is a specified service trade or business.

The Regulations provide guidance on what it means to be considered as providing services in each of the referenced categories. Regarding the last category, the Regulations state that a trade or business in which the principal asset is the reputation or skill of one or more employees means any trade or business that consists of one or more of the following: (1) a trade or business in which a person receives fees, compensation, or other income for endorsing products or services, (2) a trade or business in which a person licenses or receives fees (or other income) for use of an individual’s image, likeness, name, signature, voice, trademark, or symbols associated with that person’s identity, or (3) receiving fees or other income for appearing at an event or on radio, television, or another media format. The Regulations set forth several examples. The Regulations also create a de minimis rule under which a trade or business (determined before application of the aggregation rules) is not a specified service trade or business if (1) it has gross receipts of $25 million or less and less than ten percent of its gross receipts is attributable to the performance of services in a specified service trade or business or (2) it has more than $25 million in gross receipts and less than five percent of its gross receipts is attributable to the performance of services in a specified service trade or business.

Special Rules for Passthrough Entities, Publicly Traded Partnerships, Trusts, and Estates. Regulation section 1.199-6 provides guidance necessary for passthrough entities, publicly traded partnerships trusts, and estates to determine the section 199A deduction of the entity or its owners. The Regulations provide computational steps for passthrough entities and publicly traded partnerships and special rules for applying section 199A to trusts and decedents’ estates.

Effective Dates. The Regulations generally apply to taxable years ending after February 8, 2019, the date on which the final Regulations were published in the Federal Register. Nevertheless, taxpayers can rely on the final Regulations in their entirety or on the Proposed Regulations published in the Federal Register on August 16, 2018, in their entirety, for taxable years ending in 2018. However, to prevent abuse, certain provisions of the Regulations apply to taxable years ending after December 22, 2017, the date of enactment of the TCJA. In addition, Regulation section 1.643(f)-1, which provides anti-avoidance rules for multiple trusts, applies to taxable years ending after August 16, 2018.

b. The Service has issued a Revenue Procedure that provides guidance on methods for calculating W-2 wages for purposes of section 199A. Revenue Procedure 2019-11 provides three methods for calculating “W-2 wages” as that term is defined in section 199A(b)(4) and Regulation section 1.199A-2. The first method (the unmodified Box method) allows for a simplified calculation while the second and third methods (the modified Box 1 method and the tracking wages method) provide greater accuracy. The methods are substantially similar to the methods provided in Revenue Procedure 2006-47, which applied for purposes of former section 199. The Revenue Procedure applies to taxable years ending after December 31, 2017.

c. The Service has provided a safe harbor under which a rental real estate enterprise will be treated as a trade or business solely for purposes of section 199A. Whether a rental real estate activity constitutes a trade or business for federal tax purposes has long been an area of uncertainty, and the significance of this uncertainty has been heightened by Congress’s enactment of section 199A. To help mitigate this uncertainty, the Service has issued Revenue Procedure 2019-38 to provide a safe harbor under which a rental real estate enterprise will be treated as a trade or business solely for purposes of section 199A and the Regulations issued under that provision. If a rental real estate enterprise does not fall within the safe harbor, it can still be treated as a trade or business if it otherwise meets the definition of trade or business in Regulation section 1.199A-1(b)(14).

The Revenue Procedure defines a “rental real estate enterprise” as “an interest in real property held for the production of rents [that] may consist of an interest in a single property or interests in multiple properties.” Those relying on the Revenue Procedure must hold the interest directly or through a disregarded entity and must either treat each property held for the production of rents as a separate enterprise or treat all similar properties held for the production of rents (with certain exceptions) as a single enterprise. Commercial and residential real estate cannot be part of the same enterprise. Taxpayers that choose to treat similar properties as a single enterprise must continue to do so (including with respect to newly acquired similar properties) when the taxpayer continues to rely on the safe harbor, but a taxpayer that treats similar properties as separate enterprises can choose to treat similar properties as a single enterprise in future years.

For a rental real estate enterprise to fall within the safe harbor, the following four requirements must be met:

  1. Separate books and records are maintained to reflect income and expenses for each rental real estate enterprise;
  2. For rental real estate enterprises that have been in existence fewer than four years, 250 or more hours of rental services are performed per year with respect to the rental enterprise. For rental real estate enterprises that have been in existence for at least four years, in any three of the five consecutive taxable years that end with the taxable year, 250 or more hours of rental services are performed per year with respect to the rental real estate enterprise;
  3. The taxpayer maintains contemporaneous records, including time reports, logs, or similar documents, regarding the following: (1) hours of all services performed, (2) description of all services performed, (3) dates on which such services were performed, and (4) who performed the services. If services with respect to the rental real estate enterprise are performed by employees or independent contractors, the taxpayer may provide a description of the rental services performed by such employee or independent contractor, the amount of time such employee or independent contractor generally spent performing such services for the enterprise, and time, wage, or payment records for such employee or independent contractor. Such records are to be made available for inspection at the request of the Service. The contemporaneous records requirement does not apply to taxable years beginning prior to January 1, 2020; and
  4. The taxpayer attaches to a timely filed original return (or an amended return in the case of 2018 only) a statement that describes the properties included in each enterprise, describes rental real estate properties acquired and disposed of during the taxable year, and represents that the requirements of the Revenue Procedure are satisfied.

The Revenue Procedure also provides a definition of “rental services.”

The Revenue Procedure applies to taxable years ending after December 31, 2017. For 2018, taxpayers can rely on the safe harbor in the Revenue Procedure or the one in the proposed revenue procedure that was set forth in Notice 2019-7.

d. The Treasury Department and Service have finalized Regulations under section 199A regarding previously suspended losses included in QBI and the QBI deduction for taxpayers holding interests in regulated investment companies, split-interest trusts, and charitable remainder trusts. The Treasury Department and the Service have finalized Proposed Regulations issued in early 2019. The final Regulations provide guidance on the treatment of previously suspended losses included in QBI and on the determination of the section 199A deduction for taxpayers that hold interests in regulated investment companies, split-interest trusts, and charitable remainder trusts. The final Regulations are substantially the same as the Proposed Regulations and provide clarifying changes, particularly to Regulation section 1.199A-3(b)(1)(iv) (previously disallowed losses or deductions) and Regulation section 1.199A-6(d)(3)(iii) (trusts or estates). Only two of the clarifying changes are summarized here. First, taxpayers and practitioners questioned whether the exclusion of section 461(l) (regarding excess business losses) from the list of loss disallowance and suspension provisions in Regulation section 1.199A-3(b)(1)(iv) meant that losses disallowed under section 461(l) are not considered QBI in the year the losses are taken into account in determining taxable income. The final Regulations clarify that the list of loss disallowance and suspension provisions in Regulation section 1.199A-3(b)(1)(iv) is not exhaustive. If a loss or deduction that would otherwise be included in QBI under the rules of Regulation section 1.199A-3 is disallowed or suspended under any provision of the Code, such loss or deduction is generally taken into account for purposes of computing QBI in the year it is taken into account in determining taxable income. Second, taxpayers and practitioners also questioned how the phase-in rules apply when a taxpayer has a suspended or disallowed loss or deduction from a Specified Service Trade or Business (SSTB). Whether an individual has taxable income at or below the threshold amount, within the phase-in range, or in excess of the phase-in range, the determination of whether a suspended or disallowed loss or deduction attributable to an SSTB is from a qualified trade or business is made in the year the loss or deduction is incurred. If the individual’s taxable income is at or below the threshold amount in the year the loss or deduction is incurred, and such loss would otherwise be QBI, the entire disallowed loss or deduction is treated as QBI from a separate trade or business in the subsequent taxable year in which the loss is allowed. If the individual’s taxable income is within the phase-in range, then only the applicable percentage of the disallowed loss or deduction is taken into account in the subsequent taxable year. If the individual’s taxable income exceeds the phase-in range, none of the disallowed loss or deduction will be taken into account in the subsequent taxable year. The final Regulations provide other clarifications not summarized here regarding regulated investment company income and the QBI deduction and application of section 199A to trusts and estates. Affected taxpayers and practitioners should consult the final Regulations for details. The final Regulations apply to taxable years beginning after August 24, 2020, but taxpayers can elect to apply the final Regulations beginning on or before that date. Alternatively, taxpayers who relied on the Proposed Regulations issued in February 2019, for taxable years beginning before August 24, 2020, can continue to do so for those years.

2. No more deductions for employers for most qualified transportation fringe benefits such as employer-paid parking.

Section 13304(c) of the TCJA amended section 274(a) by adding section 274(a)(4), which provides that, for amounts paid or incurred after 2017, no deduction is allowed for any “qualified transportation fringe” (as defined in section 132(f)) provided to an employee of the taxpayer. A qualified transportation fringe is any of the following provided by an employer to an employee: (1) transportation in a commuter highway vehicle in connection with travel between the employee’s residence and place of employment, (2) any transit pass, (3) qualified parking, and (4) any qualified bicycle commuting reimbursement. Further, the legislation added new section 274(l), which provides:

  1. In General.—No deduction shall be allowed under this chapter for any expense incurred for providing any transportation, or any payment or reimbursement, to an employee of the taxpayer in connection with travel between the employee’s residence and place of employment, except as necessary for ensuring the safety of the employee.
  2. Exception.—In the case of any qualified bicycle commuting reimbursement (as described in section 132(f)(5)(F)), this subsection shall not apply for any amounts paid or incurred after December 31, 2017, and before January 1, 2026.

Effect on Employers. Under section 274, as amended, an employer cannot deduct the cost of transportation in a commuter highway vehicle, a transit pass, or qualified parking paid or incurred after 2017. However, the employer can deduct the cost of a qualified bicycle commuting reimbursement paid or incurred after 2017 and before 2026.

Effect on Employees. With one exception, the legislation did not change the tax treatment of employees with respect to qualified transportation fringes. Employees can still (as under prior law) exclude from gross income (subject to applicable limitations) any of the following provided by an employer: (1) transportation in a commuter highway vehicle in connection with travel between the employee’s residence and place of employment, (2) any transit pass, or (3) qualified parking. The exception is a qualified bicycle commuting reimbursement, which, under new section 132(f)(8), must be included in an employee’s gross income for taxable years beginning after 2017 and before 2026.

a. Guidance on determining the nondeductible portion of the cost of employer-provided parking. In Notice 2018-99, the Service announced that the Treasury Department and the Service will issue proposed regulations under section 274 that will include guidance on determining nondeductible parking expenses and other expenses for qualified transportation fringes. Until further guidance is issued, employers that own or lease parking facilities where their employees park can rely on interim guidance provided in Notice 2018-99 to determine the nondeductible portion of parking expenses under section 274(a)(4).

Employer Pays a Third Party for Employee Parking Spots. According to Notice 2018-99, in situations in which an employer pays a third party an amount so that employees may park at the third party’s parking lot or garage, the amount disallowed by section 274(a)(4) generally is the taxpayer’s total annual cost of employee parking paid to the third party. Nevertheless, if the amount paid by the employer exceeds the section 132(f)(2) monthly limitation on exclusion (i.e., $265 for 2019 and $270 for 2020), the employer must treat the excess amount as compensation and wages to the employee. Accordingly, the excess amount is not disallowed as a deduction pursuant to section 274(e)(2), which provides that section 274(a) does not disallow a deduction for an expense relating to goods, services, and facilities to the extent the taxpayer treats the expense as wages paid to its employees. The result is that the employer can deduct the monthly cost of parking provided to an employee to the extent the cost exceeds the section 132(f)(2) monthly limitation. These rules are illustrated by examples 1 and 2 in the aforementioned Notice.

Taxpayer Owns or Leases All or a Portion of a Parking Facility. Notice 2018-99 provides that, until further guidance is issued, if a taxpayer owns or leases all or a portion of one or more parking facilities where employees park, the nondeductible portion of the cost of providing parking can be calculated using any reasonable method. The Notice provides a four-step methodology that is deemed to be a reasonable method. The Notice cautions that, because section 274(a)(4) disallows a deduction for the expense of providing a qualified transportation fringe, using the value of employee parking to determine expenses allocable to employee parking is not a reasonable method. For purposes of the Notice, the term “total parking expenses,” a portion of which is disallowed, does not include a deduction for depreciation on a parking structure used for parking by the taxpayer’s employees, but does include, without limitation, “repairs, maintenance, utility costs, insurance, property taxes, interest, snow and ice removal, leaf removal, trash removal, cleaning, landscape costs, parking lot attendant expenses, security, and rent or lease payments or a portion of a rent or lease payment . . . .” Under the four-step methodology provided in the Notice, employers can determine the nondeductible portion of parking costs by (1) determining the percentage of parking spots that are reserved employee spots and treating that percentage of total parking expenses as disallowed; (2) determining whether the primary use of the remaining spots (greater than 50% actual or estimated usage) is providing parking to the general public, in which case, the remaining portion of total parking expenses is not disallowed by section 274(a)(4); (3) if the primary use of the remaining parking spots (from step 2) is not to provide parking to the general public, identifying the number of remaining spots exclusively reserved for nonemployees, including visitors, customers, partners, sole proprietors, and two-percent shareholders of S Corporations and treating this percentage of total parking expenses as not disallowed by section 274(a)(4); and (4) if there are any remaining parking expenses not specifically categorized as deductible or nondeductible after completing steps 1–3, reasonably determining “the employee use of the remaining parking spots during normal business hours on a typical business day . . . and the related expenses allocable to employee parking spots.” This four-step methodology is illustrated by examples 3 through 8 in Notice 2018-99.

b. Who knew that determining the tax consequences of providing parking or transportation to employees could get so complicated? Proposed Regulations address determining the nondeductible portion of qualified transportation fringe benefits. The Treasury Department and the Service have finalized Proposed Regulations that implement two legislative changes made by section 13304(c) of the TCJA, which added section 274(a)(4) and section 274(l) to the Code. Section 274(a)(4) disallows the deduction of any “qualified transportation fringe” (as defined in section 132(f)) provided to an employee of the taxpayer in taxable years beginning after 2017. A qualified transportation fringe is any of the following provided by an employer to an employee: (1) transportation in a commuter highway vehicle in connection with travel between the employee’s residence and place of employment, (2) any transit pass, (3) qualified parking, and (4) any qualified bicycle commuting reimbursement. Section 274(l) disallows the deduction of any expense incurred for providing any transportation (or any payment or reimbursement) to an employee of the taxpayer in connection with travel between the employee’s residence and place of employment, except as necessary for ensuring the safety of the employee, but does not disallow any qualified bicycle commuting reimbursement (as described in section 132(f)(5)(F)) paid or incurred after 2017 and before 2026.

Disallowance of deductions for qualified transportation fringe benefits. Regulation section 1.274-13 provides rules implementing the section 274(a)(4) disallowance of deductions for qualified transportation fringe benefits. With respect to qualified parking provided to employees, the Regulations follow the approach of Notice 2018-99 in distinguishing between employers who pay a third party to permit employees to park at the third party’s parking lot or garage and employers who own or lease all or a portion of a parking facility. The final Regulations, however, refine and expand the guidance provided in Notice 2018-99 by, among other things, defining a number of key terms (such as the terms “employee” and “total parking expenses”) and providing simplified methodologies that employers who own or lease parking facilities can use to determine the nondeductible portion of their parking expenses. Further, the Regulations address the treatment of so-called “mixed parking expenses,” which are amounts paid or incurred by a taxpayer that include both nonparking and parking facility expenses, such as lease payments that entitle the employer to use both office space and spaces in a parking garage. The Regulations also permit employers that own or lease parking facilities to aggregate parking spaces within a single geographic location (defined as contiguous tracts or parcels of land owned or leased by the taxpayer) for certain purposes.

Employer Pays a Third Party for Employee Parking Spots. According to Regulation section 1.274-13(d)(1), in situations in which an employer pays a third party an amount so that employees may park at the third party’s parking lot or garage, the amount disallowed by section 274(a)(4) generally is the taxpayer’s total annual cost of employee parking paid to the third party. Nevertheless, under section 274(e)(2) and Regulation section 1.274-13(e)(1), the disallowance of deductions for qualified transportation fringes does not apply to an expense relating to goods, services, and facilities to the extent the taxpayer treats the expense as wages paid to its employees. Accordingly, if the amount paid by the employer exceeds the section 132(f)(2) monthly limitation on the employee’s exclusion (i.e., $265 for 2019 and $270 for 2020), the employer must treat the excess amount as compensation and wages to the employee. The excess amount is not disallowed as a deduction provided that the employer treats the expense both as compensation on its federal income tax return and as wages subject to withholding. The result is that the employer can deduct the monthly cost of parking provided to an employee to the extent the cost exceeds the section 132(f)(2) monthly limitation. These rules are illustrated by examples 1 and 2 in Regulation section 1.274-13(e)(3).

Taxpayer Owns or Leases All or a Portion of a Parking Facility. Under Regulation section 1.274-13(d)(2), if a taxpayer owns or leases all or a portion of one or more parking facilities where employees park, the nondeductible portion of the cost of providing parking can be calculated using either a general rule or one of three simplified methodologies. Under the general rule, an employer can determine the nondeductible portion of parking expenses “based on a reasonable interpretation of section 274(a)(4).” A method will not be treated as based on a reasonable interpretation if it uses the value of parking provided to employees to determine parking expenses (because section 274(a)(4) disallows a deduction for the expense of providing a qualified transportation fringe), results in deducting expenses related to reserved employee spaces, or improperly applies the exception in section 274(e)(7) for qualified parking made available to the public (e.g., by treating a parking facility regularly used by employees as available to the public merely because the general public has access to the parking facility). There are three simplified methodologies that a taxpayer can use as an alternative to the general rule. First, a taxpayer can use the “qualified parking limit methodology,” which determines the disallowed portion of parking costs by multiplying the section 132(f)(2) monthly limitation on the employee’s exclusion (i.e., $265 for 2019 and $270 for 2020) for each month in the taxable year by the total number of spaces used by employees during the “peak demand period” (a defined term) or by the number of employees. For example, an employer with ten employees who provides parking to all of them each day for the full year would have $32,400 in disallowed parking costs (10 employees x $270 x 12 months) for the year. This method is illustrated by Example 3 in Regulation section 1.274-13(f). Second, a taxpayer can use the “primary use methodology,” which is essentially the same as the four-step methodology provided in Notice 2018-99 that, according to the Notice, is deemed to be a reasonable method of determining the nondeductible portion of parking costs. Under the four-step methodology provided in the Notice, employers can determine the nondeductible portion of parking costs by (1) determining the percentage of parking spots that are reserved exclusively for employees and treating that percentage of total parking expenses as disallowed; (2) determining whether the primary use of the remaining spots (greater than 50% actual or estimated usage) is providing parking to the general public, in which case, the remaining portion of total parking expenses is not disallowed by section 274(a)(4); (3) if the primary use of the remaining parking spots (from step 2) is not to provide parking to the general public, identifying the number of remaining spots exclusively reserved for nonemployees, including visitors, customers, partners, sole proprietors, and two-percent shareholders of S Corporations and treating this percentage of total parking expenses as not disallowed by section 274(a)(4); and (4) if there are any remaining parking expenses not specifically categorized as deductible or nondeductible after completing steps 1–3, the taxpayer must reasonably allocate the remaining expenses by determining “the total number of available parking spaces used by employees during the peak demand period.” This four-step methodology is illustrated by examples 4 through 9 in Regulation section 1.274-13(f). Third, a taxpayer can use the “cost per space methodology,” which determines the disallowed portion of parking costs by multiplying the employer’s cost per space (total parking expenses divided by total parking spaces) by the total number of available parking spaces used by employees during the peak demand period. As defined in Regulation section 1.274-13(b)(12), the term “total parking expenses,” a portion of which is disallowed, includes, without limitation, “repairs, maintenance, utility costs, insurance, property taxes, interest, snow and ice removal, leaf removal, trash removal, cleaning, landscape costs, parking lot attendant expenses, security, and rent or lease payments or a portion of a rent or lease payment (if not broken out separately).” However, the term total parking expenses does not include a deduction for depreciation on a parking facility used for parking by the taxpayer’s employees.

Disallowance of non-QTF expenses incurred for employee travel from residence to place of employment. Regulation section 1.274-14 implements the section 274(l) disallowance of deductions for expenses incurred for providing transportation (or a payment or reimbursement) to an employee in connection with the employee’s travel between the employee’s residence and place of employment. This disallowance does not apply if the transportation or commuting expense is necessary to ensure the safety of the employee. The disallowance also does not apply to qualified transportation fringes, which must be analyzed under the rules previously discussed. This Regulation is very brief and provides no examples.

Effective dates. According to Regulation sections 1.274-13(g) and 1.274-14(d), the final Regulations will apply for taxable years that begin on or after December 16, 2020, the date on which the final Regulations were published in the Federal Register. The Preamble adds that taxpayers can rely on the Proposed Regulations or, alternatively, can rely on the guidance in Notice 2018-99 for taxable years beginning after December 31, 2017, and before December 16, 2020.

3. Oh, come on! No more deductions for taking a client to a professional sports game?

Section 13304 of the TCJA amended section 274(a) to disallow deductions for costs “[w]ith respect to an activity which is of a type generally considered to constitute entertainment, amusement, or recreation.” Similarly, no deduction is allowed for membership dues with respect to any club organized for business, pleasure, recreation, or other social purposes. This rule applies to taxable years beginning after 2017.

What is “entertainment”? Regulation section 1.274-2(b)(1), which was issued before the TCJA, provides that whether an activity constitutes entertainment is determined using an objective test and set forth the following definition of the term “entertainment”:

[T]he term “entertainment” means any activity which is of a type generally considered to constitute entertainment, amusement, or recreation, such as entertaining at night clubs, cocktail lounges, theaters, country clubs, golf and athletic clubs, sporting events, and on hunting, fishing, vacation and similar trips, including such activity relating solely to the taxpayer or the taxpayer’s family. The term “entertainment” may include an activity, the cost of which is claimed as a business expense by the taxpayer, which satisfies the personal, living, or family needs of any individual, such as providing food and beverages, a hotel suite, or an automobile to a business customer or his family. The term “entertainment” does not include activities which, although satisfying personal, living, or family needs of an individual, are clearly not regarded as constituting entertainment, such as (a) supper money provided by an employer to his employee working overtime, (b) a hotel room maintained by an employer for lodging of his employees while in business travel status, or (c) an automobile used in the active conduct of trade or business even though used for routine personal purposes such as commuting to and from work.

The complete disallowance of deductions for costs of activities of a type generally considered to constitute entertainment will give rise to some difficult issues. Activities can be thought of as falling on a spectrum. At one end of the spectrum are activities that clearly are not entertainment. At the other end are activities that clearly are entertainment. The difficult issues will arise for the many activities that fall somewhere in the middle, as illustrated by the following examples.

Example 1: A self-employed CPA travels out of town to perform an audit. The CPA flies to the client’s location and stays at a hotel for several days. While there, the CPA buys breakfast, lunch, and dinner each day. The meals are not “entertainment” and are therefore not subject to disallowance under amended section 274(a). They are, however, subject to the 50% limitation of section 274(n)(1).

Example 2: A self-employed attorney invites a client to attend a professional sports game and pays the entire cost associated with attending. The cost of attending will be regarded as entertainment and therefore not deductible.

Example 3: The client of a self-employed attorney spends the day in the attorney’s office to review strategy for an upcoming IRS Appeals Conference. The client and attorney take a break for lunch at a restaurant down the street. During lunch, they continue their discussion. The attorney pays for the meal. Is the meal nondeductible “entertainment”? Or is it (at least in part) a deductible business expense subject to the 50% limitation of section 274(n)(1)?

a. Business meals are not “entertainment” and are still deductible subject to the normal 50% limitation, says the Service. In Notice 2018-76, the Service announced that the Treasury Department and the Service will issue proposed regulations under section 274 that will include guidance on the deductibility of expenses for certain business meals. According to the Notice, the TCJA did not change the definition of “entertainment” under section 274(a)(1) and, therefore, the regulations under section 274(a)(1) that define entertainment continue to apply. Further, the Notice states that, although the TCJA did not address the circumstances in which the provision of food and beverages might constitute entertainment, its legislative history clarifies that “taxpayers generally may continue to deduct 50 percent of the food and beverage expenses associated with operating their trade or business.” The Notice provides that, until proposed regulations are issued, taxpayers can rely on this Notice and can deduct 50% of an otherwise allowable business meal expense if the following five requirements are met: (1) the expense is ordinary and necessary (as defined under section 162(a)) and is paid or incurred during the taxable year in carrying on any trade or business; (2) the expense is not lavish or extravagant under the circumstances; (3) the taxpayer, or an employee of the taxpayer, is present at the furnishing of the food or beverages; (4) the food and beverages are provided to a current or potential business customer, client, consultant, or similar business contact; and (5) in the case of food and beverages provided during or at an entertainment activity, the food and beverages are purchased separately from the entertainment, or the cost of the food and beverages is stated separately from the cost of the entertainment on one or more bills, invoices, or receipts. The Notice also provides that the entertainment disallowance rule may not be circumvented through inflating the amount charged for food and beverages. The Notice provides the following examples:

Example 1. (i) Taxpayer A invites B, a business contact, to a baseball game. A purchases tickets for A and B to attend the game. While at the game, A buys hot dogs and drinks for A and B.

(ii) The baseball game is entertainment as defined in § 1.274-2(b)(1)(i) and, thus, the cost of the game tickets is an entertainment expense and is not deductible by A. The cost of the hot dogs and drinks, which are purchased separately from the game tickets, is not an entertainment expense and is not subject to the § 274(a)(1) disallowance. Therefore, A may deduct 50 percent of the expenses associated with the hot dogs and drinks purchased at the game.

Example 2. (i) Taxpayer C invites D, a business contact, to a basketball game. C purchases tickets for C and D to attend the game in a suite, where they have access to food and beverages. The cost of the basketball game tickets, as stated on the invoice, includes the food and beverages.

(ii) The basketball game is entertainment as defined in § 1.274-2(b)(1)(i) and, thus, the cost of the game tickets is an entertainment expense that is not deductible by C. The cost of the food and beverages, which are not purchased separately from the game tickets, is not stated separately on the invoice. Thus, the cost of the food and beverages is also an entertainment expense that is subject to the § 274(a)(1) disallowance. Therefore, C may not deduct any of the expenses associated with the basketball game.

Example 3. (i) Assume the same facts as in Example 2, except that the invoice for the basketball game tickets separately states the cost of the food and beverages.

(ii) As in Example 2, the basketball game is entertainment as defined in § 1.274-2(b)(1)(i) and, thus, the cost of the game tickets, other than the cost of the food and beverages, is an entertainment expense and is not deductible by C. However, the cost of the food and beverages, which is stated separately on the invoice for the game tickets, is not an entertainment expense and is not subject to the § 274(a)(1) disallowance. Therefore, C may deduct 50 percent of the expenses associated with the food and beverages provided at the game.

b. Final Regulations issued. The Treasury Department and the Service have finalized Proposed Regulations to implement the changes made to section 274(a) by section 13304 of the TCJA. Specifically, new Regulation section 1.274-11 sets forth the rules for entertainment expenses. New Regulation section 1.274-12 sets forth the separate rules for business meals, travel meals, and employer-provided meals. The Regulations affect taxpayers who pay or incur expenses for meals or entertainment in taxable years beginning after December 31, 2017, and apply to those taxpayers for taxable years that begin on or after October 9, 2020. For prior periods, taxpayers may rely upon the Proposed Regulations for the proper treatment of entertainment expenditures and food or beverage expenses, as applicable, paid or incurred after December 31, 2017. In addition, taxpayers may rely upon the guidance in Notice 2018-76 for periods prior to the effective date of the final Regulations. Set forth below is a high-level summary of the final Regulations (which should not be solely relied upon by affected taxpayers and their advisors, as they should study the new guidance more carefully).

Entertainment expenses. With respect to section 274(a) entertainment expenses, Regulation section 1.274-11(a) restates the new deduction-disallowance rule under section 274(a), including the application of the disallowance rule to dues or fees relating to any social, athletic, or sporting club or organization. Regulation section 1.274-2(b)(1)(i) substantially incorporates the definition of “entertainment” that appeared in the prior regulations, with minor modifications to remove outdated language. Regulation section 1.274-11(c) confirms that the nine exceptions to section 274(a), which are set forth in section 274(e) (e.g., entertainment costs or club dues reported as employee compensation, recreational expenses for employees, employee or stockholder business meeting expenses, etc.) continue to apply to entertainment expenses. Importantly, like Notice 2018-76, the Regulations clarify that food or beverage expenses are not considered entertainment expenses subject to disallowance under section 274(a) and that food or beverages provided during or at an entertainment activity (such as meals purchased at a sporting event) similarly are not considered entertainment expenses provided that the food or beverages are purchased separately from the entertainment or the cost of the food or beverages is stated separately from the cost of the entertainment on one or more invoices, bills, or receipts. The rule that separately-stated food or beverages are not considered entertainment applies only if the separately-stated cost reflects the venue’s usual selling cost for those items if they were to be purchased separately from the entertainment or approximates the reasonable value of those items. Examples 1 through 4 in Regulation section 1.274-11(d) illustrate the rules for meals purchased during or at an entertainment activity.

Business meal expenses. Section 274(k) provides that no deduction is allowed for the cost of food or beverages unless the expense is not lavish or extravagant and the taxpayer, or an employee of the taxpayer, is present at the furnishing of the food or beverages. Regulation section 1.274-12(a)(1)–(3) reflects and expands upon these statutory requirements and provides that business meals are deductible (subject to the normal 50% limit) as a business expense provided that the expense is not lavish or extravagant under the circumstances, the taxpayer or an employee of the taxpayer is present for the meal, and the food or beverages are provided to a “business associate,” defined in Regulation section 1.274-12(b)(3) as “a person with whom the taxpayer could reasonably expect to engage or deal in the active conduct of the taxpayer’s trade or business such as the taxpayer’s customer, client, supplier, employee, agent, partner, or professional adviser, whether established or prospective.”

Further guidance. In addition, new Regulation section 1.274-12 goes beyond Notice 2018-76 in several respects. First, even though the rules for travel expenses were not amended by the TCJA, new Regulation section 1.274-12(a)(4) provides that food or beverages purchased while away from home in pursuit of a trade or business generally are subject to the requirements of section 274(k) discussed above, the 50% limitation of section 274(n), the substantiation requirements of section 274(d), and certain special rules in section 274(m) (cruise expenses, education travel expenses, and spouse and dependent travel expenses). Second, new Regulation section 1.274-12(b)(1) clarifies that the treatment of food or beverages provided to employees as de minimis fringe benefits is excludable by employees under section 132(e). Under Regulation section 1.132-7, employee meals provided on a nondiscriminatory basis by an employer qualify as de minimis fringe benefits under section 132(e) if (1) the eating facility is owned or leased by the employer; (2) the facility is operated by the employer; (3) the facility is located on or near the business premises of the employer; (4) the meals furnished at the facility are provided during, or immediately before or after, the employee’s workday; and (5) the annual revenue derived from the facility normally equals or exceeds the direct operating costs of the facility. Such employer-provided meals previously were fully deductible by the employer and fully excludable by employee; however, section 13304 of the TCJA amended section 274(n) to limit the employer’s deduction to 50% of the cost of employee meals provided at an employer-operated eating facility (unless, as discussed immediately below, an exception applies). Beginning in 2026, the costs of such employer-provided meals will be entirely disallowed as deductions pursuant to new section 274(o). Third, new Regulation section 1.274-12(c) addresses the six exceptions to the section 274(n)(1) 50% limitation on the deduction of food or beverage expenses set forth in section 274(n)(2) (e.g., food or beverage expenses treated as compensation to an employee, recreational expenses for employees, etc.). Fourth, in response to practitioner concerns, Regulation section 1.274-12(c) also addresses by way of examples several common scenarios, including the deductibility of expenses for (1) food or beverages provided to food service workers who consume the food or beverages while working in a restaurant or catering business; (2) snacks available to employees in a pantry, break room, or copy room; (3) refreshments provided by a real estate agent at an open house; (4) food or beverages provided by seasonal camp-to-camp counselors; (5) food or beverages provided to employees at a company cafeteria; and (6) food or beverages provided at company holiday parties and picnics.

4. For now, some relief from the section 163(j) limitation on deducting business interest because Congress CARES!

Section 2306 of the Coronavirus Aid, Relief, and Economic Security Act (CARES Act) redesignates section 163(j)(10) as subsection (11) and inserts a new section 163(j)(10) to increase the limit on deductions for business interest expense for 2019 and 2020. New section 163(j)(10) increases the section 163(j) limit for 2019 and 2020 in two ways. First, recall that section 163(j), as modified by the TCJA, generally (but subject to significant exceptions) limits the deduction for business interest expense to the sum of (1) business interest income, (2) 30% of “adjusted taxable income,” and (3) floor plan financing interest. The term “adjusted taxable income” is defined essentially as “earnings before interest, tax, depreciation and amortization” (EBITDA) for 2018 through 2021, and then as “earnings before interest and taxes” (EBIT) for subsequent years. New section 163(j)(10), however, increases to 50% (instead of 30%) the “adjusted taxable income” component of the section 163(j) limitation for taxable years beginning in 2019 and 2020. Taxpayers are permitted to elect out of the increased percentage pursuant to procedures to be prescribed by the Service. Second, new section 163(j)(10) permits eligible taxpayers to elect to substitute their 2019 “adjusted taxable income” for 2020 “adjusted taxable income” when determining the section 163(j) limitation for taxable years beginning in 2020. Special rules in new section 163(j)(10) apply to (1) the application of the business interest expense limitation to partnerships and partners for their 2019 and 2020 tax years and (2) application of the limitation to short taxable years.

The Treasury Department and the Service have published extensive final Regulations under section 163(j), including guidance pertaining to new section 163(j)(10).

The Service has also provided a safe harbor allowing a trade or business that manages or operates a qualified residential living facility (e.g., a nursing home) to be treated as a real property trade or business solely for purposes of qualifying for the election available to such trades or businesses under section 163(j)(7)(B) to elect out of the section 163(j) limitation. Without this safe harbor, the level of services provided by a qualified residential living facility presumably would foreclose treatment of such a facility from being a real property trade or business for purposes of section 163(j).

5. Seinfeld warned us: no double-dipping (with your PPP money)! Or, on a second thought, maybe you can!

Section 1102 of the CARES Act, in tandem with section 7(a)(36) of the Small Business Act, establishes the much-touted Paycheck Protection Program (PPP). The PPP was created to combat the devastating economic impact of the coronavirus pandemic. Generally speaking, the PPP facilitates bank-originated, federally-backed loans (“covered loans”) to fund payroll and certain other trade or business expenses (“covered expenses”) paid by taxpayers during an eight-week period following the loan’s origination date. Moreover, section 1106(b) of the CARES Act allows taxpayers to apply for debt forgiveness with respect to all or a portion of a covered loan used to pay covered expenses. Section 1106(i) of the CARES Act further provides that any such forgiven debt meeting specified requirements may be excluded from gross income by taxpayer-borrowers.

Background. The CARES Act does not address whether covered expenses funded by a forgiven covered loan are deductible for federal income tax purposes. Normally, of course, covered expenses would be deductible by a taxpayer under section 162, 163, or other similar provision; however, a longstanding provision of the Code, section 265(a)(1), disallows deductions for expenses allocable to one or more classes of income “wholly exempt” from federal income tax. Put differently, section 265(a)(1) generally prohibits taxpayers from double-dipping: taking deductions for expenses attributable to tax-exempt income. Section 265 most often has been applied to disallow deductions for expenses paid to seek or obtain tax-exempt income. For example, a taxpayer claiming nontaxable Social Security disability benefits pays legal fees to pursue the claim. The legal fees are not deductible under section 265(a)(1). Covered expenses, on the other hand, presumably would have been incurred by taxpayers (at least in part) regardless of the PPP. The question arises, therefore, whether covered expense deductions are disallowed by section 265 when all or a portion of a PPP covered loan subsequently is forgiven.

Notice 2020-32. Notice 2020-32 sets forth the Service’s position that covered expenses funded by the portion of a PPP covered loan subsequently forgiven are not deductible pursuant to section 265. The Service reasons that Regulations under section 265 define the term “class of exempt income” as any class of income (whether or not any amount of income of such class is received or accrued) that is either wholly excluded from gross income for federal income tax purposes or wholly exempt from federal income taxes. Thus, because the forgiven portion of a covered loan is nontaxable (i.e., “wholly exempt”) and is tied to the taxpayer’s expenditure of the loan proceeds for covered expenses, section 265 disallows a deduction for those expenses. The Service also cites several cases in support of its position. As if to convince itself, though, the Service also cites as support—but without analysis—several arguably inapposite cases that do not rely upon section 265(a)(1). Instead, these cases hold that expenditures reimbursed from or directly tied to nontaxable funds are not deductible.

A possible legislative solution? The Authors doubt that Notice 2020-32 is the last word on the tax treatment of PPP covered loans and covered expenses. Apparently, many practitioners and at least a few members of Congress believe that the Service’s position in Notice 2020-32 contravenes congressional intent. Treasury Secretary Mnuchin, though, defended the Service’s position. Furthermore, what happens to capitalized covered expenses? Are taxpayers forced to reduce basis when a portion of a covered loan is forgiven? What about outside basis adjustments for S corporations and partnerships that have paid covered expenses with the proceeds of a subsequently forgiven covered loan? Remember Gitlitz (excludable cancellation of indebtedness income increases S corporation shareholder’s outside basis allowing use of previously suspended losses), which was followed by enactment of section 108(d)(7)(A) (legislatively overruling Gitlitz)?

A broader perspective. Perhaps the unstated, but no less unsettling, aspect of Notice 2020-32 is that the Notice fails to address adequately the inconsistent application of section 265 by the Service and the Treasury Department. It is well established that section 265(a)(1) disallows so-called “forward looking” deductions allocable to “wholly exempt” income (i.e., expenses paid to earn or obtain exempt income). For instance, as mentioned above, section 265(a)(1) disallows a deduction for legal fees paid to pursue a nontaxable Social Security disability award. Less established, however, is whether section 265 disallows so-called “backward looking” deductions (i.e., expenses funded with tax-exempt income but not paid to obtain such tax-exempt income). For example, a taxpayer might receive an excludable bequest of artwork but is nonetheless allowed a charitable contribution deduction upon donating the artwork to a tax-exempt museum.

a. Don’t think you can avoid having deductions disallowed just because your PPP loan has not yet been forgiven, says the Service. Following the Service’s issuance of Notice 2020-32, which provides that costs are not deductible to the extent they are paid with the proceeds of a PPP loan that is forgiven, many taxpayers questioned whether they could take deductions for costs paid in 2020 with the proceeds of a PPP loan if the loan is not forgiven in 2020. In Revenue Ruling 2020-27, the Service has crushed the hopes of many taxpayers. According to the ruling:

A taxpayer [that paid expenses with the proceeds of a PPP loan] may not deduct those expenses in the taxable year in which the expenses were paid or incurred if, at the end of such taxable year, the taxpayer reasonably expects to receive forgiveness of the covered loan on the basis of the expenses it paid or accrued during the covered period . . . .

The Revenue Ruling illustrates this rule in two situations. In the first, the taxpayer paid qualifying costs (payroll, mortgage interest, utilities, and rent) in 2020 with the proceeds of a PPP loan, satisfied all requirements for forgiveness of the loan, and applied for forgiveness of the loan, but the lender did not inform the taxpayer by the end of 2020 whether the loan would be forgiven. In the second situation, the facts were the same except that the taxpayer did not apply for forgiveness of the loan in 2020 and instead expected to apply for forgiveness of the loan in 2021. The Ruling concludes that, in both situations, the taxpayers have a reasonable expectation that their loans will be forgiven and, therefore, cannot deduct the expenses they paid with the proceeds of their PPP loans. The Ruling relies on two distinct lines of authority to support this conclusion. One line involves taxpayers whose deductions are disallowed because they have a reasonable expectation of reimbursement at the time they pay the costs in question. The Service reasons in the Ruling that the taxpayers in the two situations described have a reasonable expectation of reimbursement in the form of forgiveness of their PPP loans. The second line of authority is under section 265(a)(1), which disallows deductions for any amount otherwise deductible that is allocable to one or more classes of tax-exempt income regardless of whether the tax-exempt income is received or accrued. Thus, according to the Ruling, the fact that the loans in the two situations have not yet been forgiven does not preclude the costs paid by the taxpayers from being allocable to tax-exempt income.

b. But taxpayers can deduct expenses paid with the proceeds of a PPP loan to the extent their applications for loan forgiveness are denied or to the extent they decide not to seek forgiveness of the loan. Revenue Procedure 2020-51 provides a safe harbor that allows taxpayers to claim deductions in a taxable year beginning or ending in 2020 for otherwise deductible expenses paid with proceeds of a PPP loan that the taxpayer expects to be forgiven after 2020 to the extent that, after 2020, the taxpayer’s request for loan forgiveness is denied or the taxpayer decides not to request loan forgiveness. The deductions can be claimed on a timely filed (including extensions) original 2020 income tax return or information return, an amended 2020 return (or, in the case of a partnership, an administrative adjustment request for 2020), or a timely filed original income tax return or information return for the subsequent year in which the request for loan forgiveness is denied or in which the taxpayer decides not to seek loan forgiveness. The deductions the taxpayer claims cannot exceed the principal amount of the PPP loan for which forgiveness was denied or will not be sought. To be eligible for the safe harbor, the taxpayer must attach a statement (titled “Revenue Procedure 2020-51 Statement”) to the return on which the taxpayer claims the deductions. The statement must include information specified in the Revenue Procedure. The Revenue Procedure seems to acknowledge that, for taxpayers claiming the deductions in the subsequent taxable year in which loan forgiveness is denied, the safe harbor is unnecessary because such taxpayers would be able to deduct the expenses in the subsequent taxable year under general tax principles.

c. Congress finally has stepped in and provided legislative relief. A provision of the Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2021, provides that, for purposes of the Internal Revenue Code:

[N]o deduction shall be denied, no tax attribute shall be reduced, and no basis increase shall be denied, by reason of the exclusion from gross income [of the forgiveness of a PPP loan].

The legislation also provides that, in the case of partnerships and Subchapter S corporations, any amount forgiven is treated as tax-exempt income, which has the effect of providing a basis increase to the partners or shareholders. The provision applies retroactively as if it had been included in the CARES Act.

6. Go ahead and deduct 100% of the cost of that business meal, at least through 2022.

Section 210 of the Taxpayer Certainty and Disaster Tax Relief Act of 2020 amends section 274(n)(2), which sets forth exceptions to the normal 50% limitation on deducting business meals, to add an additional exception. The exception is for the cost of food or beverages provided by a restaurant paid or incurred before January 1, 2023. This rule applies to amounts paid or incurred after December 31, 2020.

7. A permanent incentive to make commercial buildings energy efficient.

Section 102 of the Taxpayer Certainty and Disaster Tax Relief Act of 2020 made the section 179D deduction permanent for the cost of energy-efficient commercial building property. Generally, these are improvements designed to reduce energy and power costs with respect to the interior lighting systems, heating, cooling, ventilation, and hot water systems of a commercial building by 50% or more in comparison to certain standards. The lifetime limit on deductions under section 179D is $1.80 per square foot. The legislation also provides that the maximum credit is adjusted for inflation for taxable years beginning after 2020. This provision had expired for property placed in service after December 31, 2017 and was retroactively extended by the Taxpayer Certainty and Disaster Tax Relief Act of 2019 to property placed in service after 2017 and before 2021.

8. Standard mileage rates for 2021.

In Notice 2021-2, the Service reduced the standard mileage rate for business miles in 2021 to 56 cents per mile (from 57.5 cents in 2020) and the medical/moving rate to 16 cents per mile (from 17 cents in 2020). The charitable mileage rate remains fixed by section 170(i) at 14 cents. The portion of the business standard mileage rate treated as depreciation went down to 26 cents per mile for 2021 (from 27 cents in 2020). The maximum standard automobile cost may not exceed $51,100 (up from $50,400 in 2020) for passenger automobiles (including trucks and vans) for purposes of computing the allowance under a “fixed and variable rate” (FAVR) plan.

The Notice reminds taxpayers that (1) the business standard mileage rate cannot be used to claim an itemized deduction for unreimbursed employee travel expenses because, in the TCJA, Congress disallowed miscellaneous itemized deductions for 2021 and (2) the standard mileage rate for moving has limited applicability for the use of an automobile as part of a move during 2021 because, in the TCJA, Congress disallowed the deduction of moving expenses for 2021 (except for members of the military on active duty who move pursuant to military orders incident to a permanent change of station, who can still use the standard mileage rate for moving).

E. Depreciation and Amortization

1. Goodbye, basis; hello 100% section 168(k) bonus first-year depreciation!

Section 13201 of the TCJA amended section 168(k)(1) and 168(k)(6) to permit taxpayers to deduct 100% of the cost of qualified property for the year in which the property is placed in service. This change applies to property acquired and placed in service after September 27, 2017, and before 2023. The percentage of the property’s adjusted basis that can be deducted is reduced from 100% to 80% in 2023, 60% in 2024, 40% in 2025, and 20% in 2026. (These periods are extended by one year for certain aircraft and certain property with longer production periods.) Property acquired on or before September 27, 2017 and placed in service after that date is eligible for bonus depreciation of 50% if placed in service before 2018, 40% if placed in service in 2018, 30% if placed in service in 2019, and is ineligible for bonus depreciation if placed in service after 2019.

Used property eligible for bonus depreciation. The legislation also amended section 168(k)(2)(A) and (E) to make used property eligible for bonus depreciation under section 168(k). Prior to this change, property was eligible for bonus depreciation only if the original use of the property commenced with the taxpayer. This rule applies to property acquired and placed in service after September 27, 2017. Note, however, that used property is eligible for bonus depreciation only if it is acquired “by purchase” as defined in section 179(d)(2). This means that used property is not eligible for bonus depreciation if the property is (1) acquired from certain related parties (within the meaning of section 267 or 707(b)), (2) acquired by one component member of a controlled group from another component member of the same controlled group, (3) property the basis of which is determined by reference to the basis of the same property in the hands of the person from whom it was acquired (such as a gift), or (4) property the basis of which is determined under section 1014 (relating to property acquired from a decedent). In addition, property acquired in a like-kind exchange is not eligible for bonus depreciation.

Qualified property. The definition of “qualified property” eligible for bonus depreciation continues to include certain trees, vines, and plants that bear fruits or nuts (deductible at a 100% level for items planted or grafted after September 27, 2017, and before 2023, and at reduced percentages for items planted or grafted after 2022 and before 2027). The definition also includes a qualified film or television production. Excluded from the definition is any property used in a trade or business that has had floor plan financing indebtedness (unless the business is exempted from the section 163(j) interest limitation because its average annual gross receipts over a three-year period do not exceed $25 million).

Section 280F $8,000 increase in first-year depreciation. For passenger automobiles that qualify, section 168(k)(2)(F) increases by $8,000 in the first year the section 280F limitation on the amount of depreciation deductions allowed. The legislation continues this $8,000 increase for passenger automobiles acquired and placed in service after 2017 and before 2023. For passenger automobiles acquired on or before September 27, 2017, and placed in service after that date, the previously scheduled phase-down of the $8,000 increase applies as follows: $6,400 if placed in service in 2018, $4,800 if placed in service in 2019, and $0 after 2019.

Three categories consolidated into one. The legislation replaced the categories of “qualified leasehold improvement property,” “qualified restaurant property,” and “qualified retail improvement property” with a single category, “qualified improvement property.” Section 168(e)(6) defines qualified improvement property (subject to certain exceptions) as “any improvement to an interior portion of a building which is nonresidential real property if such improvement is placed in service after the date such building was first placed in service.” Qualified improvement property is depreciable over 15 years using the straight-line method and is subject to the half-year convention. This change applies to property placed in service after 2017.

Note: The Conference Agreement indicates that the normal recovery period for qualified improvement property is 15 years, but section 168 as amended does not reflect this change. This should be addressed in technical corrections.

a. The Service has issued final Regulations that provide guidance on section 168(k) first-year depreciation. The Treasury Department and the Service have finalized, with some changes, Proposed Regulations issued under section 168(k). These Regulations provide guidance regarding the additional first-year depreciation deduction (so-called “bonus depreciation”) under section 168(k) as amended by the TCJA. They affect taxpayers who deduct depreciation for qualified property acquired and placed in service after September 27, 2017. Generally, the Regulations provide detailed guidance on the requirements that must be met, including specific requirements that apply to used property, for depreciable property to qualify for the additional first-year depreciation deduction provided by section 168(k).

The Preamble to the final Regulations notes that some comments submitted on the Proposed Regulations had requested that the final Regulations provide that “qualified improvement property” (discussed above) placed in service after 2017 is eligible for additional first-year depreciation under section 168(k). The Treasury Department and the Service declined to adopt this suggested change because the relevant statutory provisions do not permit it. Although the Conference Agreement that accompanied the TCJA stated that qualified improvement property is depreciable over 15 years, section 168 as amended by the TCJA does not reflect this change. Accordingly, the recovery period for qualified improvement property is 39 years. Because property that qualifies for the additional first-year depreciation deduction generally must have a recovery period of 20 years or less, qualified improvement property placed in service after 2017 is not eligible for bonus depreciation.

The final Regulations are effective on September 24, 2019, but taxpayers can choose to apply them in their entirety to qualified property acquired and placed in service (or planted or grafted) after September 27, 2017, during taxable years ending on or after September 28, 2017. For qualified property acquired and placed in service (or planted or grafted) after September 27, 2017, during taxable years ending after that date and before September 24, 2019, taxpayers can rely on the Proposed Regulations.

b. Congress finally CARES about first-year bonus depreciation. Section 2307 of the CARES Act amended section 168(e)(3)(E) by adding clause (viii), which adds qualified improvement property to the category of 15-year property. The effect of this change is to make qualified improvement property eligible for 100% first-year, bonus depreciation. This change is effective retroactively (i.e., as if the change had been made by the TCJA).

c. The Service has provided guidance for taxpayers to change their depreciation of qualified improvement property for taxable years ending in 2018, 2019, and 2020. Revenue Procedure 2020-25 provides guidance allowing a taxpayer to change its depreciation under section 168 for qualified improvement property placed in service by the taxpayer after December 31, 2017, in its taxable year ending in 2018 (2018 taxable year), 2019 (2019 taxable year), or 2020 (2020 taxable year). The Revenue Procedure also allows a taxpayer to make a late election, or to revoke or withdraw an election, under section 168(g)(7), (k)(5), (k)(7), or (k)(10) for the taxpayer’s 2018 taxable year, 2019 taxable year, or 2020 taxable year.

2. We suppose it makes sense that racehorses have a swift recovery period.

Section 137 of the Taxpayer Certainty and Disaster Tax Relief Act of 2020 extended the section 168(e)(3)(A)(i) classification of racehorses as three-year MACRS property so that the classification applies to racehorses placed in service before January 1, 2022. A racehorse placed in service after December 31, 2021, qualifies for the three-year recovery period only if it is more than two years old when placed in service. This provision allowing classification of all racehorses as three-year property regardless of age had expired for racehorses placed in service after December 31, 2017 and was retroactively extended by section 114 of the Taxpayer Certainty and Disaster Tax Relief Act of 2019.

3. Good news for those who place motorsports entertainment complexes in service through 2025.

Section 115 of the Taxpayer Certainty and Disaster Tax Relief Act of 2020 extended section 168(e)(3)(C)(ii) classification of motorsports entertainment complexes as seven-year property to include property placed in service through December 31, 2025. Such property is depreciable over a seven-year recovery period using the straight-line method. This provision had expired for property placed in service after December 31, 2017 and was retroactively extended by section 115 of the Taxpayer Certainty and Disaster Tax Relief Act of 2019 to include property placed in service through December 31, 2020. As most recently amended, the provision now applies to property placed in service through December 31, 2025.

4. For real property trades or businesses that elect out of the section 163(j) limitation on deducting business interest, the recovery period for residential rental properties under the alternative depreciation system is 30 years instead of 40 years for properties placed in service before 2018.

Section 163(j), enacted by section 13301 of the TCJA, generally limits the deduction for business interest expense to the sum of (1) business interest income, (2) 30% of “adjusted taxable income,” and (3) floor plan financing interest. (Section 163(j)(10), enacted by the CARES Act, increases to 50% (instead of 30%) the “adjusted taxable income” component of the section 163(j) limitation for taxable years beginning in 2019 and 2020.) The section 163(j) limit applies to businesses with average annual gross receipts (computed over three years) of more than $25 million. Real property trades or businesses that are subject to section 163(j) can elect out of the limitation imposed by that provision. The cost of doing so, however, is that, pursuant to section 168(g)(1)(F) and (g)(8), a real property trade or business that elects out of the interest limitation of section 163(j) must use the “alternative depreciation system” (ADS) for nonresidential real property, residential rental property, and qualified improvement property. Section 13204 of the TCJA modified the ADS to provide a recovery period of 30 years (rather than the former 40 years) for residential rental property subject to the ADS. This modification of the recovery period for residential rental property, however, applied only to property placed in service after December 31, 2017. This meant that, if a real property trade or business elected out of the interest limitation of section 163(j) in 2018 or future years, and if the business had placed residential rental property in service before January 1, 2018, it had to use the ADS for such property with a recovery period of 40 years. In section 202 of the Taxpayer Certainty and Disaster Tax Relief Act of 2020, Congress amended section 13204 of the TCJA to provide that the 30-year ADS recovery period applies to residential rental property that is held by an electing real property trade or business and that was placed in service before January 1, 2018. The effect of this amendment is that real property trades or businesses that elect out of the interest limitation of section 163(j) and are, therefore, subject to the ADS with respect to residential rental property can use a recovery period of 30 years for that property regardless of when the property was originally placed in service. This change applies retroactively to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2017.

F. Credits

1. Congress gives a “thumbs up” to new energy-efficient homes.

Section 45L provides a credit of $2,000 or $1,000 (depending on the projected level of fuel consumption) that an eligible contractor can claim for each qualified new energy-efficient home constructed by the contractor and acquired by a person from the contractor for use as a residence during the tax year. The provision had expired for homes acquired after December 31, 2017, and was retroactively extended by section 129 of the Taxpayer Certainty and Disaster Tax Relief Act of 2019. Most recently, Congress extended the credit through section 115 of the Taxpayer Certainty and Disaster Tax Relief Act of 2020. As extended, the credit is available for homes acquired before January 1, 2022.

2. Congress has extended through 2025 the credit for employers that pay wages to certain employees during periods of family and medical leave.

The TCJA enacted section 45S, which provides that an “eligible employer” can include the “paid family and medical leave credit” among the credits that are components of the general business credit under section 38(b). The credit is equal to a percentage of the amount of wages paid to “qualifying employees” during periods in which the employees are on family and medical leave. The credit is available against both the regular tax and the alternative minimum tax. As enacted, the section 45S credit was available for wages paid in taxable years beginning after December 31, 2017, and before January 1, 2020. Section 142 of the Taxpayer Certainty and Disaster Tax Relief Act of 2019 extended the credit to wages paid in taxable years beginning before January 1, 2021. Most recently, section 119 of the Taxpayer Certainty and Disaster Tax Relief Act of 2020 extended the credit to wages paid in taxable years beginning before January 1, 2026.

Amount of the credit. To be eligible for the credit, the employer must pay during the period of leave at a rate that is at least 50% of the wages normally paid to the employee. The credit is 12.5% of the wages paid, increased by 0.25 percentage points for each percentage point by which the rate of payment exceeds 50%. The maximum credit is 25% of wages. Thus, if an employer pays an employee at a rate that is 60% of the employee’s normal wages, the credit is 15% of wages paid (12.5% + 2.5 percentage points). The credit reaches 25% when the employer pays at a rate that is 100% of the employee’s normal wages. The credit cannot exceed the amount derived from multiplying the employee’s normal hourly rate by the number of hours for which the employee takes leave. The compensation of salaried employees is to be prorated to an hourly wage under regulations to be issued by the Treasury Department. The maximum amount of leave for any employee that can be taken into account for purposes of the credit is 12 weeks per taxable year.

Eligible employer. An eligible employer is defined as one who has in place a written policy that (1) allows all full-time “qualifying employees” not less than two weeks of annual paid family and medical leave and all part-time qualifying employees a commensurate amount of leave on a pro rata basis and (2) requires that the rate of payment under the program is not less than 50% of the wages normally paid to the employee.

Eligible employee. An eligible employee is defined as any employee as defined in section 3(e) of the Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938 who has been employed by the employer for one year or more and who, for the preceding year, had compensation not in excess of 60% of the compensation threshold for highly compensated employees. For 2019, the threshold for highly compensated employees (see section 414(q)(1)(B)) was $125,000. Thus, for purposes of determining the credit in 2020, an employee is an eligible employee only if his or her compensation for 2019 did not exceed $75,000 ($125,000 x 60%).

Family and medical leave. The term “family and medical leave” is defined as leave described under sections 102(a)(1)(a)–(e) or 102(a)(3) of the Family and Medical Leave Act of 1993. (Generally, these provisions describe leave provided because of the birth or adoption of a child, a serious health condition of the employee or certain family members, or the need to care for a service member with a serious injury or illness.) If an employer provides paid leave as vacation leave, personal leave, or other medical or sick leave, this paid leave is not considered to be family and medical leave.

No double benefit. Pursuant to section 280C(a), no deduction is allowed for the portion of wages paid to an employee for which this new credit is taken. Thus, if an employer pays $10,000 to an employee and takes a credit for 25%, or $2,500, the employer may deduct as a business expense only $7,500 of the wages.

Effective date. The credit is now available for wages paid in taxable years beginning after December 31, 2017, and before January 1, 2026.

3. Take some COVID-19 sick leave (or maybe some family leave) on the Treasury! The Families First Coronavirus Response Act provides refundable tax credits that reimburse (smaller?) employers for providing paid sick and family leave wages to their employees.

The Families First Coronavirus Response Act (FFCRA), signed into law on March 18, 2020, authorizes refundable tax credits to eligible employers to offset the cost of paid sick and family leave provided to employees for COVID-19 related leave. Under the FFCRA, eligible employers must offer paid leave to their employees under two separate sets of temporary, emergency provisions. First, the Emergency Paid Sick Leave Act (EPSLA), which is Division E of the FFCRA, entitles workers to as much as 80 hours of paid sick leave (“qualified sick leave wages”) under specific circumstances related to COVID-19. Second, the Emergency Family and Medical Leave Expansion Act (Expanded FMLA), which is Division C of the FFCRA, entitles workers to paid family and medical leave (“qualified family leave wages”) under, again, specified circumstances related to COVID-19. Eligible employers who are required to pay employees for leave under these emergency provisions are allowed a tax credit to fully refund the cost of the leave that is required under these emergency provisions. The amount of these tax credits generally is increased by any qualified health plan expenses allocable to the eligible employer’s share of Medicare tax on the qualified leave wages.

Eligible Employers. An eligible employer (referred to in the legislation as a “covered employer”) is generally defined in section 5110(2)(B) of the FFCRA as a private business, including a tax-exempt organization, that employs fewer than 500 employees. In general, a business has fewer than 500 employees if, at the time the relevant leave is taken, the business employs less than 500 full and part-time employees. Federal employees generally are covered by Title II of the Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA). While the FMLA generally was not amended by the FFCRA, federal employees covered by Title II of the FMLA are covered by the FFCRA’s paid sick leave provision. Small businesses employing fewer than 50 employees may qualify for exemption from the FFCRA’s requirement to provide paid leave to employees required to take leave due to a school closure or when childcare becomes unavailable.

Paid Sick Leave. Under the EPSLA (section 5102(a) of the FFCRA), an employer is required to provide paid sick leave to an employee if the employee is unable to work (or telework) because the employee needed leave for any one of the following circumstances:

  1. The employee is subject to a federal, state, or local quarantine or isolation order related to COVID-19.
  2. The employee has been advised by a health care provider to self-quarantine due to concerns related to COVID-19.
  3. The employee is experiencing symptoms of COVID-19 and seeking a medical diagnosis.
  4. The employee is caring for an individual who is subject to an order as described in subparagraph (1) or has been advised as described in paragraph (2).
  5. The employee is caring for a son or daughter of such employee if the school or place of care of the son or daughter has been closed, or the child care provider of such son or daughter is unavailable, due to COVID-19 precautions.
  6. The employee is experiencing any other substantially similar condition specified by the Secretary of Health and Human Services in consultation with the Secretary of the Treasury and the Secretary of Labor.

The first three circumstances listed above generally are situations in which an employee’s own health needs are in question. The following two circumstances are situations in which the employee is unable to work because he or she must care for another person, such as a child or dependent of the employee. Under section 5102(b)(2)(A) of the FFCRA, full-time employees who qualify under any of the circumstances above are entitled to receive up to 80 hours or 10 days of paid sick time. According to section 5102(b)(2)(B) of the FFCRA, a part-time employee is entitled to receive sick time equal to the average number of hours the employee worked over a two-week period. Section 3012 of the FFCRA, which amends the FMLA for this purpose, states that an “eligible employee” is an employee who has been employed for at least 30 calendar days. Paid sick time for all employees, according to section 5110(5)(B) of FFCRA, generally is compensated at an amount equal to the employee’s regular rate of pay. The rate of pay for sick leave, however, is limited to a maximum amount depending on whether the employee qualifies under the first three or last three circumstances set out above. If the employee qualifies under one of the first three circumstances (applying to his or her own health needs), the rate of compensation for sick leave caps out at $511 per day and $5,110 total. The amount of compensation is lower if the employee qualifies under circumstances (4)–(6) above. In those circumstances, the rate of pay is two-thirds of the employee’s regular rate of pay or, if higher, the federal or state applicable minimum wage up to $200 per day and $2,000 in the aggregate. Thus, total sick leave wages in circumstances (4)–(6) caps out at $200 per day or $2,000.

Paid Family Leave Credit. The FFCRA provides a tax credit for employers who pay qualified family leave wages to employees who cannot report to work or work remotely in order to care for a son or daughter if the school or place of care of the child has been closed or if the childcare provider is unavailable due to COVID-19 precautions. These reasons match circumstance (5) listed above, which is the only relevant and qualifying circumstance for family leave wages. In general, according to section 7003(c) of FFCRA, “qualified family leave wages” means wages that an eligible employer must pay to an eligible employee under the Expanded FMLA provisions of the FFCRA. Employees taking family leave are paid at two-thirds of their regular rate or two-thirds of the applicable minimum wage, whichever is higher. The amount of “qualified family leave wages” that are taken into account for purposes of the credit, however, are limited to $200 per day per employee. There is also a $10,000 per employee maximum aggregate allowed of qualified family leave wages that may be taken into account for purposes of the credit. Under this math, as much as ten weeks of family leave wages can be received by an employee. Note, however, that the first ten days of leave taken may be without pay. The reason for this rule is that it is anticipated that in the first ten-day period, the employee may receive qualified sick leave wages under the EPSLA as described above. Alternatively, an employee may choose to receive paid leave under the eligible employer’s regular sick leave, vacation leave, or other policies allowing for paid time off. Thus, after ten days, the eligible employer must provide the employee with qualified family leave wages for up to ten weeks. In summary, employees taking family leave are paid at two-thirds their regular rate or two-thirds the applicable minimum wage, whichever is higher, up to $200 per day and $12,000 in the aggregate (over a twelve-week period—two weeks of paid sick leave followed by up to ten weeks of paid expanded family and medical leave).

Sick Leave and Family Leave Credit for Employers. An eligible employer who is required to pay qualified sick leave wages or qualified family leave wages under the FFCRA is entitled to a fully refundable tax credit. The amount of the credit is equal to the amount of qualified sick leave wages and qualified family leave wages paid to employees from April 1, 2020, through December 31, 2020. The credit is increased dollar-for-dollar by the employer’s payment of qualified health plan expenses that relate to the employee’s sick leave or family leave payments and the employer’s share of the Medicare tax imposed on those payments.

Employers that pay qualified sick leave wages or qualified family leave wages are allowed to forgo payment of federal employment taxes in an amount that is equal to the wages and qualified health plan expenses. In other words, when an employer pays its employees, the employer generally withholds and deposits federal income taxes on the employee’s wages and the employee’s share of Social Security and Medicare taxes. The employer also deposits the employer’s share of Social Security and Medicare taxes. In depositing these employment taxes on a quarterly basis, employers must file employment tax returns (Form(s) 941, 943, 944, or CT-1) with the Service. Eligible employers who pay qualified sick leave wages or qualified family leave wages that are eligible for the credit may retain (e.g., not remit) an amount of the employment taxes equal to the amount of qualified sick leave wages and qualified family leave wages paid during that quarter (plus certain related health plan expenses and the employer’s share of the Medicare taxes on the qualified leave wages) rather than deposit these amounts with the Service. If retention of these employment taxes is not sufficient to compensate the employer for the qualified leave wages, qualified health plan expenses, and the employer’s share of Medicare taxes due, employers may additionally file for advance payments from the Service. Stated otherwise, if quarterly employment taxes due in a particular quarter are less than the amount of the credit for which the employer is eligible, the employer may receive the remaining credit in advance by filing Form 7200. As discussed below, the FFCRA also provides similar credits for qualified self-employed taxpayers in similar circumstances. However, self-employed individuals are not eligible for advance payments.

Substantiation. To claim the tax credit for qualified sick leave wages or qualified family leave wages, an employer must maintain documentation supporting the amounts paid to each employee. Employers must retain all Forms 941, Employer’s Quarterly Federal Tax Return, and Forms 7200, Advance of Employer Credits Due to Covid-19, and any other relevant tax filings with the Service that relate to the credit.

Self-Employed Individuals. The FFCRA also provides a tax credit for eligible self-employed individuals. Under section 7002(b) of the FFCRA, an “eligible self-employed individual” is defined as an individual who regularly carries on any trade or business who would otherwise be entitled to receive qualified sick leave wages or qualified family leave wages if the individual were an employee of an eligible employer as described above. Like an eligible employer, an eligible self-employed individual is allowed a credit to offset his or her federal self-employment tax in an amount equal to the “qualified sick leave equivalent amount” or “qualified family leave equivalent amount.” There are specific and different methods to calculate these two amounts.

With respect to calculating the “qualified sick leave equivalent amount,” section 7002(c)(1) of the FFCRA provides that an eligible self-employed individual who is unable to work or telework under circumstances (1)–(3) listed above in relation to employee sick leave wages qualifies for an amount of sick leave equal to the number of days during the taxable year that the individual cannot perform services in the applicable trade or business multiplied by the lesser of $511 or 100% of the “average daily self-employment income” of the individual for the taxable year. Average daily self-employment income is equal to net earnings from self-employment for the year divided by 260. Net earnings from self-employment are based on gross income less ordinary and necessary trade or business expenses of the self-employed individual’s trade or business. Similar to the method described above for employee sick leave, if the self-employed individual is unable to work or telework because of one of circumstances (4)–(6) above, the qualified sick leave equivalent amount is equal to the number of days during the taxable year that the individual cannot perform services in the applicable trade or business for one of the three above reasons, multiplied by the lesser of $200 or two-thirds of the “average daily self-employment income” of the individual for the taxable year. Regardless of the manner in which a person qualifies, the maximum number of days a self-employed individual may take into account in determining the qualified sick leave equivalent amount is ten days.

The “qualified family leave equivalent amount” is defined as an amount equal to the number of days (up to 50) during the taxable year that the self-employed individual cannot perform services (similar to the above-described family leave) multiplied by the lesser of (1) $200 or (2) two-thirds of the average daily self-employment income of the individual for the taxable year.

A self-employed individual may receive both qualified sick leave wages and qualified family leave wages. However, if a self-employed individual is both self-employed and also works as an employee of another, there cannot be a double benefit. If a self-employed individual receives sick leave wages from a separate employer, such individual’s qualified sick leave equivalent amount must be offset or reduced by the sick leave wages received from his or her employer. Thus, a self-employed individual’s qualified sick leave equivalent must be reduced (but not below zero) by up to $5,110 if circumstances (1)–(3) apply or $2,000 in the case of circumstances (4)–(6). Similarly, a self-employed individual must reduce any qualified family leave equivalent amount by the amount by which the sum of the qualified family leave equivalent amount and the qualified family leave wages received by the individual exceeds $10,000. The Service has provided guidance on its website in the form of frequently asked questions entitled COVID-19-Related Tax Credits: Special Issues for Employees and Additional Questions FAQs. Q&A 64 provides an example that illustrates this calculation:

Assume that an eligible self-employed individual’s qualified family leave equivalent amount is $5,000, but the individual also works for an Eligible Employer and received qualified family leave wages of $9,000 to care for the individual’s child while school was closed due to COVID-19. The individual’s qualified family leave equivalent amount would be reduced by $4,000 [i.e., ($5,000 + $9,000) - $10,000], resulting in a credit for the qualified family leave equivalent of $1,000 [i.e., $5,000 - $4,000].

Self-employed individuals generally make quarterly estimated tax payments. Accordingly, a self-employed individual may not recover leave amounts by not remitting employment tax. Self-employed individuals must instead claim the credit on their 2020 federal income tax returns. It is also possible for a self-employed individual to estimate and properly adjust their quarterly estimated tax payments downward to solve or improve cash flow.

4. Congress has extended various business credits.

The Taxpayer Certainty and Disaster Tax Relief Act of 2020 extended several business credits, including (1) the section 51 Work Opportunity Credit, extended for wages paid through December 31, 2025; (2) the section 45 credit for electricity produced from certain renewable resources, extended for facilities for which construction has commenced before January 1, 2022; (3) the section 45G railroad track maintenance credit, extended for 50% of qualified railroad track maintenance expenditures paid or incurred in taxable years beginning before January 1, 2023 (reduced to 40% after that date); (4) the section 45A Indian Employment Credit, extended for taxable years beginning before January 1, 2022, and the section 45 Indian Coal Production Credit, extended for coal produced before January 1, 2022; (5) the section 45D New Markets Credit, extended through 2025; (6) the section 45N mine rescue team training credit, extended for taxable years beginning before January 1, 2022; and (7) a number of others that we have missed or didn’t care enough about to include.

G. Natural Resources Deductions and Credits

There were no significant developments regarding this topic during 2020.

H. Loss Transactions, Bad Debts, and NOLs

1. Those NOLs are not worth what they used to be (at least until 2026).

Section 11012 of the TCJA amended section 461 by adding section 461(l), which disallows “excess business losses” for noncorporate taxpayers for taxable years beginning in 2018. Such “excess business losses” are determined after application of the passive loss rules of section 469. Essentially, as the Authors read the statute, losses disallowed for a taxable year under section 461(l) are carried over to the next taxable year and become net operating loss (NOL) carryforwards subject to revised section 172(a) (discussed below). Thus, the practical effect of section 461(l) appears to be a one-year deferral of “excess business losses.” An “excess business loss” is defined as the amount by which a noncorporate taxpayer’s aggregate trade or business deductions exceed aggregate gross income from those trades or businesses, plus $250,000 ($500,000 for joint filers). The term “aggregate trade or business deductions” apparently does not include section 172 carryforwards, so NOLs carried forward from 2017 and prior taxable years are not limited by new section 461(l). Such carryforwards are, however, limited by the changes made to section 172(a) (as discussed below). For partnerships and S corporations, new section 461(l) applies at the partner or shareholder level, and for farmers, the prior limitation on “excess farm losses” under section 461(j) is suspended so that only section 461(l) applies to limit such losses. After 2018, the cap on “excess business losses” is adjusted annually for inflation. Mercifully, new section 461(l) sunsets for taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2026.

a. Surely you jest . . . there’s even more bad news for NOLs? Section 13302(a) of the TCJA amended section 172(b)(1) such that, for taxable years beginning in 2018, NOLs (except “farming losses” and NOLs of non-life insurance companies) no longer may be carried back two years, and any carried forward NOLs are capped at 80% of taxable income (computed without regard to NOLs). This change to section 172(a) is permanent.

b. The good news: NOLs now are like BFFs; they stick with you until you die! Section 13302(b) of the TCJA amended section 172(b)(1)(A)(ii) so that NOLs may be carried forward indefinitely (except by non-life insurance companies) rather than being limited to 20 years as under pre-TCJA law. This change to section 172(b) is permanent.

c. Wait for it . . . wait for it . . . . The Treasury Department and the Service have yet to release any official administrative guidance concerning the above changes to the rules for NOLs. The only new information we have regarding the above-described changes is a news release.

d. And . . . as Emily Litella (played by the late, great Gilda Radner on SNL) used to say . . . “NEVER MIND”!! The CARES Act has allowed carrybacks of NOLs and suspended the limitation on excess business losses. The CARES Act modifies several of the rules for NOLs that were introduced into the Code by the TCJA. Section 2303(b) of the CARES Act amends section 172(b)(1) by adding a new subparagraph (D) to allow NOL carrybacks previously barred by the TCJA. Under new section 172(b)(1)(D), NOLs arising in taxable years beginning after December 31, 2017, but before January 1, 2021 (generally, 2018, 2019, and 2020), may be carried back to each of the five preceding taxable years. Special rules and limitations apply to REITs, life insurance companies, and taxpayers subject to section 965 (controlled foreign corporations). Further, section 2303(a) of the CARES Act amends section 172(a) such that, for taxable years beginning before January 1, 2021 (generally, 2019 and 2020), the 80% taxable income limitation on NOL carryforwards enacted by the TCJA does not apply. Last but not least, section 2304 of the CARES Act amends section 461(l) to repeal temporarily the rule, added by the TCJA, that disallows and carries forward “excess business losses” of noncorporate taxpayers attributable to taxable years beginning in 2018 and subsequent years. The temporary repeal applies to taxable years beginning before January 1, 2021. Thus, noncorporate taxpayers (including partners and Subchapter S shareholders) whose 2018 and 2019 “excess business losses” were limited and carried forward by the prior version of section 461(l) will need to file amended returns to claim “excess business losses” that were disallowed and carried forward from those years.

e. The Service has provided guidance regarding the election made available by the CARES Act to carry back NOLs arising in 2018, 2019, or 2020. Revenue Procedure 2020-24 provides guidance on the elections available under section 172(b)(1)(D), as amended by the CARES Act, to carry to each of the five preceding taxable years NOLs arising in taxable years beginning after December 31, 2017, but before January 1, 2021 (generally 2018, 2019, and 2020). Generally, as a result of that amendment, taxpayers take into account such NOLs in the earliest taxable year in the carryback period and carry forward unused amounts to each succeeding taxable year. Among other guidance, the Revenue Procedure provides procedures for (1) waiving the carryback period for NOLs arising in the relevant tax years (generally 2018, 2019, and 2020); (2) excluding from the carryback period any taxable year in which the taxpayer includes in subpart F income accumulated post-1986 foreign earnings pursuant to section 965, the provision that imposes a transition tax as the United States moved to a participation exemption system for foreign earnings; and (3) waiving a carryback period, reducing a carryback period, or revoking an election to waive a carryback period for a taxable year beginning before 2018 and ending after 2017. The Revenue Procedure is effective April 9, 2020.

f. The Service has extended to June 30, 2020, the deadline to file Form 1139 or Form 1045 to carry back 2018 NOLs. To carry back NOLs, a taxpayer can either file an amended return or file for a quick refund using Form 1139 (Corporations) or Form 1045 (taxpayers other than corporations). The CARES Act did not change the due date of Forms 1139 or 1045. Normally, under section 6411, an application on Form 1139 or 1045 must be filed within 12 months of the close of the taxable year in which the NOL arose. As a result of the CARES Act, NOLs arising in 2018, 2019, and 2020 can now be carried back five years. For 2018 NOLs, Forms 1139 or 1045 would have been due December 31, 2019. Under section 6081, the Treasury Secretary can grant a reasonable extension of up to six months for filing any return declaration or statement. Notice 2020-26 extends the time to file Forms 1139 or 1045 to June 30, 2020, for taxpayers with NOLs that arose in a taxable year that began during calendar year 2018 and that ended on or before June 30, 2019. The Notice directs taxpayers to include the following language at the top of form: “Notice 2020-26, Extension of Time to File Application for Tentative Carryback Adjustment.”

g. The Service has issued guidance in the form of frequently asked questions (FAQs) on its website regarding filing Forms 1139 or 1045. According to its website, starting on April 17, 2020, and until further notice, the Service will accept eligible refund claims on Form 1139 submitted via fax to 844-249-6236 and eligible refund claims on Form 1045 submitted via fax to 844-249-6237. The FAQs provide that it is not possible to file an amended return by faxing it to these numbers. Only Forms 1139 or 1045 may be faxed. One problem that practitioners may encounter is that it may be necessary to amend the return for a year prior to filing Form 1139 or 1045, but the amended return, which likely will be filed by mail, might not be processed by June 30, the deadline for filing Forms 1139 or 1045 for 2018. In such a case, the quick refund claim will not reflect figures on the return as it exists in the Service’s system. The FAQs address this problem in Q&A 15, which provides:

If you need to amend a previously filed return prior to filing Form 1139 or Form 1045, follow normal filing procedures by timely filing hard copy Forms 1120-X/1139 and hard copy Forms 1040-X/1045 as applicable, in order to adhere to any filing deadlines particular to your situation.

I. At-Risk and Passive Activity Losses

There were no significant developments regarding this topic during 2020.

III. Investment Gain and Income

A. Gains and Losses

1. Taxpayer restores money-pit mansion to its former glory, but due to taxpayer’s failure to rent or hold out for rental, gets “hammered” by capital loss.

In Keefe v. Commissioner, married taxpayers, neither of whom were an architect or contractor, acquired and restored Wrentham House, a historic mansion in Newport, Rhode Island. From May of 2000 until May of 2008, the taxpayers spent approximately $10 million repairing and restoring the mansion with the goal of turning it into a luxury vacation rental property. Notwithstanding the taxpayers’ $10 million investment in the mansion, structural and other problems prevented the property from being marketable as a rental property until June of 2008. At that time, of course, the “Great Recession” was in full swing, and there was virtually no market and no prospect for luxury rentals. Consequently, the mansion was never rented or even seriously marketed for rental, and in August of 2009, the mansion was sold in a short sale for approximately $6 million. The taxpayers claimed that the mansion was section 1231 property used in a trade or business, thereby entitling them to ordinary loss treatment. The Service contended that the mansion was not used in a trade or business but was instead a capital asset, so the loss on the short sale was a capital loss subject to the $3,000 per year limitation of section 1211(b).

The Tax Court (Chief Judge Marvel) held for the Service. Citing Gilford v. Commissioner because the case would be appealable to the Court of Appeals for the Second Circuit, Judge Marvel explained that the taxpayers failed to show that their alleged rental activities were “sufficient, continuous, and substantial enough to constitute a trade or business with respect to rental of the property.” Instead, Judge Marvel ruled that the mansion was property “held for the production of income, but not used in a trade or business of the taxpayer.” Accordingly, section 1231 did not apply to the mansion, so the mansion was a capital asset subject to the capital loss limitation of section 1211(b). The court also upheld the Service’s imposition of accuracy-related penalties.

a. And the Second Circuit agrees. In a relatively brief opinion, the Second Circuit affirmed the decision of the Tax Court. Writing for the Second Circuit, Judge Walker agreed with Judge Marvel that the taxpayer’s activities with respect to the mansion did not rise to the level of a trade or business. Therefore, the mansion was a capital asset, not a section 1231 asset, and the taxpayers thus suffered a capital loss, not an ordinary loss, upon the short sale of the mansion. Nevertheless, Judge Walker quibbled a bit with Judge Marvel’s analysis. Judge Walker explained that the standard applied by Judge Marvel was more stringent than required by prior Second Circuit decisions. Specifically, to determine trade or business status with respect to real estate rental activities, Judge Marvel of the Tax Court examined whether the taxpayers’ activities concerning the mansion were sufficiently “continuous, regular, and substantial.” Judge Marvel’s opinion stated that the Second Circuit requires that taxpayers be engaged in continuous, regular, and substantial activity in relation to the management of the property to support a conclusion that the property was used in a trade or business and was not a capital asset. In Judge Walker’s view, however, Second Circuit precedent only requires a taxpayer’s real estate rental activities to be “regular and continuous” to support a trade or business finding. Judge Walker explained that the Second Circuit has never expressly added the word “substantial” to the “continuous and regular” standard for testing trade or business status with respect to real estate rental activities. Regardless, Judge Walker affirmed Judge Marvel’s holding because the taxpayers’ activities with respect to the mansion were not “regular and continuous” enough to justify a trade or business finding. Judge Walker also upheld Judge Marvel’s decision to impose accuracy-related penalties.

2. The discharge of nonrecourse debt is not income from cancellation of indebtedness under Oregon’s anti-deficiency statute and must be included in the amount realized on the sale of the property, says the Tax Court.

The memorandum decision in Duffy v. Commissioner is lengthy and addresses a number of time-worn issues not worth reviewing here; however, of interest is the Tax Court’s analysis of whether the taxpayers were required to include in gross income the discharge of indebtedness that secured property they ultimately sold. The taxpayers, a married couple, bought a second residence in Oregon (the Gearhart property) for an agreed price of $2 million. During some of the years in question, the taxpayers occasionally rented the Gearhart property. Consistent with the purchase contract, the taxpayers paid $430,500 to the sellers but were unable to pay the remaining balance at that time. Subsequently, the taxpayers borrowed $1.4 million from J.P. Morgan Chase (JPMC) and used the proceeds to pay a portion of the remaining amount they owed to the sellers. In 2011, the taxpayers sold the Gearhart property for $800,000 and JPMC agreed to accept $750,841 of the proceeds in full satisfaction of the mortgage on the Gearhart property. On their 2011 income tax return, the taxpayers reported cancellation of indebtedness of $626,046, the remaining principal balance on the JPMC loan. The Service issued a notice of deficiency to the taxpayers in relation to their 2011 tax return, which, among other things, determined that the taxpayers had additional cancellation of debt (COD) income related to the Gearhart property of $108,661, the amount of unpaid interest that had accrued on the JPMC loan.

The Tax Court (Judge Halpern) first concluded that the taxpayers were not entitled to a loss deduction from their sale of the Gearhart property. The taxpayers had rented the Gearhart property and, pursuant to Regulation section 1.165-9(b)(2), their basis for purposes of determining loss was the lower of their cost basis or the fair market value of the property at the time they began renting it. The court concluded that they had not established the fair market value of the property at the time they began renting it and, therefore, had not established their basis for purposes of determining any loss deduction to which they might be entitled.

Cancellation of Indebtedness Income. In addressing whether the taxpayers were required to report any COD income on the sale of the Gearhart property, the Tax Court reviewed the rules applicable to sales or exchanges under section 1001 and the relevant regulations. Judge Halpern noted that, when a creditor cancels debt that is secured by the property that is sold, the cancellation of the debt can result in either COD income or be included in the amount realized from the sale, thereby increasing the taxpayer’s gain or reducing the taxpayer’s loss on sale. Under Regulation section 1.1001-2(a)(1), when a taxpayer transfers property and is relieved of a liability, the taxpayer generally must include the liability relief in the amount realized from the disposition of the property. However, under Regulation section 1.1001-2(a)(2), the taxpayer’s amount realized from a disposition of property that secures a recourse liability does not include amounts that are income from the discharge of indebtedness under section 61(a)(12). Thus, the cancellation of recourse debt gives rise to COD income to the extent the cancelled debt exceeds the fair market value of the property, and the cancellation of nonrecourse debt does not give rise to COD income and is instead included in the taxpayer’s amount realized from the disposition of the property.

The taxpayers took the position on their 2011 return that the liabilities were recourse and that any COD income that arose was excluded from income under section 108(a)(1)(B) due to their alleged insolvency. Conceding that the taxpayers did not have COD income on $32,572 of the unpaid interest (because it would otherwise have been deductible), the Service maintained that the taxpayers realized unreported COD income of $76,089 ($108,661 total unpaid interest less the $32,572 deductible portion). Judge Halpern deduced from this argument that the Service viewed the JPMC loan as being a recourse liability. Moreover, the Service acknowledged that, if the JPMC loan had been nonrecourse (i.e., if the bank’s remedies upon default were limited to the Gearhart property alone), the portion of the loan that was cancelled would be included in the taxpayer’s amount realized. However, before considering the taxpayer’s argument that any COD income arising from the sale of the Gearhart property was excluded due to their alleged insolvency, the court turned to state law to determine whether the debt was recourse or nonrecourse.

Effect of a State Anti-Deficiency Statute. According to the Tax Court’s opinion, Oregon law bars a lender from pursuing a borrower for any portion of a debt remaining (i.e., for any deficiency) after a judicial foreclosure of a residential trust deed and after an administrative foreclosure of any type of property. Although there had been no judicial foreclosure of the Gearhart property, Judge Halpern reasoned that, if the taxpayers sold the Gearhart property in an administrative foreclosure, without the involvement of a court, then the Oregon anti-deficiency statute limited JPMC’s remedies against the taxpayers. Judge Halpern then inferred that, because the sale documents for the Gearhart property did not include any judicial filings by JPMC or references to any judicial proceedings, the sale was part of an administrative, as opposed to a judicial, foreclosure. Accordingly, Oregon’s anti-deficiency statute prevented JPMC from pursuing the Duffy’s other assets to satisfy any debt in excess of the proceeds it received from the sale of the Gearhart property; thus, the JPMC loan was nonrecourse debt. Therefore, the court concluded, the amount of the loan from which the taxpayers had been discharged must be included in their amount realized from the sale of the property and the taxpayers had no COD income under section 61(a)(12).

Other cases raising similar issues. The Tax Court reached a similar result in Simonsen v. Commissioner where it held that debt secured by real property sold by the taxpayers in a short sale was nonrecourse when California’s anti-deficiency statute precluded the lender from pursuing the taxpayers for the balance of the loan that was not satisfied by the short sale. For this reason, the court in Simonsen treated the full amount of the mortgage loan as the taxpayers’ amount realized in the short sale. Alternatively, in Breland v. Commissioner, the court held that, because the debt in question was recourse debt, the portion of the debt that exceeded the fair market value of the properties sold at a foreclosure sale was not included in the taxpayers’ amount realized.

B. Interest, Dividends, and Other Current Income

There were no significant developments regarding this topic during 2020.

C. Profit-Seeking Individual Deductions

1. Say it isn’t so! Miscellaneous itemized deductions are no longer deductible beginning in 2018.

Section 11045 of the TCJA amended section 67 by adding section 67(g), which disallows as deductions all miscellaneous itemized deductions for taxable years beginning after 2017 and before 2026. Miscellaneous itemized deductions are defined in section 67(b) and, prior to the TCJA, were deductible to the extent that, in the aggregate, they exceeded two percent of the taxpayer’s adjusted gross income. The largest categories of miscellaneous itemized deductions are (1) investment-related expenses such as fees paid for investment advice or for a safe deposit box used to store investment-related items, (2) unreimbursed employee business expenses, and (3) tax preparation fees.

a. But estates and nongrantor trusts can breathe a sigh of relief. Under section 67(e), the adjusted gross income of an estate or trust generally is computed in the same manner as that of an individual. Furthermore, prior to the TCJA, estates and nongrantor trusts were subject to the two-percent floor on miscellaneous itemized deductions like individuals unless a cost paid or incurred by the estate or nongrantor trust “would not have been incurred if the property were not held in such estate or trust.” Put differently, estates and nongrantor trusts avoided the two-percent floor on miscellaneous itemized deductions if they paid or incurred a cost that “commonly or customarily” would not have been paid or incurred by a hypothetical individual holding the same property as the estate or nongrantor trust. For example, Regulation section 1.67-4(b)(3) provides the following:

Tax preparation fees. Costs relating to all estate and generation-skipping transfer tax returns, fiduciary income tax returns, and the decedent’s final individual income tax returns are not subject to the 2-percent floor. The costs of preparing all other tax returns (for example, gift tax returns) are costs commonly and customarily incurred by individuals and thus are subject to the 2-percent floor.

If a fee (such as a tax preparation fee) paid or incurred by an estate or nongrantor trust was bundled so that it included costs that were both subject to the two-percent floor (e.g., gift tax return) and not subject to the two-percent floor (e.g., fiduciary income tax return), then the estate or nongrantor trust must allocate the bundled fee appropriately.

The enactment of new section 67(g), which states that “no miscellaneous itemized deduction” is allowed until 2026, left many estates and trusts wondering whether their investment-related and tax-related expenses (e.g., return preparation fees, trustee fees, financial advisor fees, etc.) peculiar to the administration of an estate or trust remain deductible either in whole or in part. Notice 2018-61 announces that the Treasury Department and the Service do not read new section 67(g) to disallow all investment- and tax-related expenses of estates and nongrantor trusts. Thus, the Treasury Department and the Service intend to issue regulations clarifying that estates and nongrantor trusts may continue to deduct investment- and tax-related expenses just as they could prior to the enactment of new section 67(g). Notice 2018-61 also announces that the Treasury Department and the Service are aware of concerns surrounding whether new section 67(g) impacts a beneficiary’s ability to deduct investment- and tax-related expenses pursuant to section 642(h) (unused loss carryovers and excess deductions) upon termination of an estate or nongrantor trust. The Treasury Department and the Service intend to issue regulations addressing these concerns as well.

b. Service issues final Regulations clarifying that certain deductions allowed to an estate or nongrantor trust are not miscellaneous itemized deductions. The Treasury Department and the Service have finalized Proposed Regulations clarifying that deductions described in section 67(e)(1) and (2) are not miscellaneous itemized deductions. The final Regulations amend Regulation section 1.67-4 to clarify that section 67(g) does not deny deductions described under section 67(e)(1) and (2) for estates and nongrantor trusts. These deductions generally include administration expenses of the estate or trust that would not have been incurred if the property were not held in the trust or estate and also include the personal exemption deduction of an estate or nongrantor trust. Such deductions are allowable in arriving at adjusted gross income and are not considered miscellaneous itemized deductions under section 67(b). The Regulations specifically do not address whether such deductions will continue to be deductible for purposes of the alternative minimum tax.

The final Regulations also provide guidance under section 642(h) in relation to net operating loss and capital loss carryovers under subsection (h)(1) and the excess deductions under subsection (h)(2). They implement a more specific method aimed at preserving the tax character of three categories of expenses. Thus, fiduciaries are required to separate deductions into, at least, the following three categories: (1) deductions allowed in arriving at adjusted gross income, (2) non-miscellaneous itemized deductions, and (3) miscellaneous itemized deductions. Under this regime, each deduction comprising the section 642(h)(2) excess deductions retains its separate character that passes through to beneficiaries on termination of the estate or trust. Separately stating these categories of expenses facilitates proper reporting by beneficiaries.

The Regulations adopt the principles used under Regulation section 1.652(b)-3 in allocating items of deduction among the classes of income in the final year of a trust or estate for purposes of determining the character and amount of the excess deductions under section 642(h)(2). In general, Regulation section 1.652(b)-3 provides that deductions attributable to a particular class of income retain their character. Any remaining deductions that are not directly attributable to a specific class of income are allocated to any item of income (including capital gains) with a portion allocated to any tax-exempt income. The character and amount of each deduction remaining represents the excess deductions available to the beneficiaries. The Proposed Regulations provide a useful example for determining the character of excess deductions.

The final Regulations apply to taxable years beginning after October 19, 2020. Taxpayers can choose to apply the final Regulations to all taxable years beginning after 2017 or can apply the Proposed Regulations to taxable years beginning after 2017 and before October 19, 2020. The prior regulations had treated excess deductions on termination as miscellaneous itemized deductions. Some commenters had requested that taxpayers be able to apply the new regulations to all open tax years, which would allow filing claims for refund for years in which excess deductions had been treated as miscellaneous itemized deductions. The Preamble to the final Regulations indicates that taxpayers cannot rely on either the Proposed or final Regulations for open tax years beginning before 2018 (the effective date of section 67(g)).

D. Section 121

There were no significant developments regarding this topic during 2020.

E. Section 1031

1. The Service temporarily vaccinates tenancy-in-common (TIC) trusts against COVID-19.

Assuming compliance with Revenue Ruling 2004-86 and Regulation section 301.7701-4(c), certificated interests in “Delaware Statutory Trusts” (DSTs) holding real property can be treated as “tenancy-in-common” (TIC) interests for purposes of meeting the like-kind exchange requirements of section 1031. The COVID-19 pandemic’s effect on leased property forced many of these trusts to modify their mortgage loans or lease agreements, or accept cash contributions, to remain viable. In response, Revenue Procedure 2020-34 provides temporary safe harbors whereby such actions taken as a result of the COVID-19 pandemic generally will not be treated as “manifesting a power to vary” the investment of the DST certificate holders. Otherwise, treatment of the certificate holders as owning an interest in real property for purposes of section 1031 would be jeopardized. The safe harbors of Revenue Procedure 2020-34 are limited to specified COVID-19 related (1) mortgage loan modifications requested or agreed to between March 27, 2020, and December 31, 2020; (2) lease modifications requested and agreed to on or after March 27, 2020, and on or before December 31, 2020 for leases entered into by the applicable DST on or before March 13, 2020; and (3) the acceptance of certain cash contributions from new or existing interest holders between March 27, 2020, and December 31, 2020.

2. “Real property” defined, at least for purposes of section 1031.

For those of you who have been living under a rock, section 13303 of the TCJA amended section 1031(a)(1) so that the term “real property” was substituted for “property” for taxable years beginning after 2017. Thus, like-kind exchanges under section 1031 for 2018 and future years are limited to “real property.” But what, exactly, qualifies as “real property” for this purpose? What about leasehold interests? What about personal property that is affixed to real property (e.g., escalators, sprinkler systems)? Is such personal property considered boot, and therefore taxable, if it is part of a like-kind exchange under revised section 1031? Final Regulations address these and other questions. In general, the Regulations define the term “real property” to include land and permanent improvements to land (e.g., buildings), unsevered crops and other natural products of land, and water and air space superjacent to land. Improvements to land include inherently permanent structures (e.g., stadiums) and the structural components of inherently permanent structures (e.g., escalators, sprinkler systems, cell towers).

Intangible interests in real property. Subject to the requirements of the Regulations, the term “real property” also includes intangible interests in real property (e.g., a leasehold interest or option to acquire real estate). Thus, a land-use permit is considered real property under section 1031, but a license to operate a casino in a taxpayer’s building is not section 1031 real property.

Impact of state and local law definitions of real property. Assets considered real property under state and local law (e.g., shares in a mutual ditch, reservoir, or irrigation company; stock in a cooperative housing corporation; a water pipeline) can meet the definition of “real property” under the Regulations. For example, the Regulations provide that a like-kind exchange of a water pipeline defined under state law as real property for cell towers that may or may not be defined as real property under state law can qualify under section 1031.

Personal property affixed to real property. With respect to personal property that is not an inherently permanent component of real property, the Regulations adopt a multi-factor test to determine real property status under section 1031. The multi-factor test examines (1) the manner, time, and expense of installing and removing the component; (2) whether the component is designed to be moved; (3) the damage that removal of the component would cause to the item itself or to the inherently permanent structure to which it is affixed; and (4) whether the component is installed during construction of the inherently permanent structure. Examples in the Regulations conclude that a large, indoor sculpture designed and installed specifically for the atrium of a building is considered real property under section 1031, whereas a modular drywall partition system within a building is not considered real property under section 1031.

Effective date. The final Regulations apply to exchanges beginning after December 2, 2020.

F. Section 1033

There were no significant developments regarding this topic during 2020.

G. Section 1035

There were no significant developments regarding this topic during 2020.

H. Miscellaneous

There were no significant developments regarding this topic during 2020.

IV. Compensation Issues

A. Fringe Benefits

1. Costs for over-the-counter medicine and other products may now be reimbursed by FSAs and HSAs!

Under section 223(d), organizations may create a U.S. trust as a “health savings account” (HSA) for the exclusive purpose of paying qualified medical expenses on behalf of the beneficiary. Qualified medical expenses are generally defined as amounts expended by the beneficiary for medical care of the beneficiary, his or her spouse, and any dependent as defined under section 52. Prior to the CARES Act, the last sentence of section 223(d)(2)(A) provided that qualified medical expenses included amounts paid for prescription medicines or drugs. Under the old rule, qualified medical expenses did not include over-the-counter medicine or drugs that were not prescribed. As such, historically, there was no qualified reimbursement by the HSA for expenses associated with costs incurred for medicine or drugs that were not prescribed.

Section 3702(a) of the CARES Act amends the previous rules that apply to HSAs by removing the last sentence of section 223(d)(2)(A), which has the effect of including over-the-counter medicines and drugs that are not prescribed. The CARES Act also replaces the original last sentence of section 223(d)(2)(A) by inserting, “[f]or purposes of this subparagraph, amounts paid for menstrual care products [as defined in new section 223(d)(2)(D)] shall be treated as paid for medical care.” In general, the above changes allow all such expenses to be treated as qualified reimbursements by an HSA. The same rules also apply to reimbursements from “flexible spending accounts” (FSAs). These changes apply to distributions from HSAs and reimbursements from FSAs after 2019.

2. There are no adverse tax consequences for employees if they forgo their vacation, sick, or personal leave in exchange for the employer’s contributions to charitable organizations providing disaster relief for those affected by the COVID-19 pandemic.

In Notice 2020-46, the Service has provided guidance on the tax treatment of cash payments that employers make pursuant to leave-based donation programs for the relief of victims of the COVID-19 pandemic in all 50 states, the District of Columbia, and certain U.S. territories (affected geographic areas). Under leave-based donation programs, employees can elect to forgo vacation, sick, or personal leave in exchange for cash payments that the employer makes to charitable organizations described in section 170(c). The Notice provide that the Service will not assert that (1) cash payments an employer makes before January 1, 2021, to charitable organizations described in section 170(c) for the relief of victims of the COVID-19 pandemic in affected geographic areas in exchange for vacation, sick, or personal leave that its employees elect to forgo constitute gross income or wages of the employees or (2) the opportunity to make such an election results in constructive receipt of gross income or wages for employees. Employers are permitted to deduct these cash payments either under the rules of section 170 (as a charitable contribution) or under the rules of section 162 (as a business expense) if the employer otherwise meets the requirements of either provision. Employees who make the election cannot claim a charitable contribution deduction under section 170 for the value of the forgone leave. The employer need not include cash payments made pursuant to the program in Box 1, 3 (if applicable), or 5 of the employee’s Form W-2.

B. Qualified Deferred Compensation Plans

1. Congress has made access to retirement plan funds easier for those affected by COVID-19.

Section 2202 of the CARES Act provides special rules that apply to distributions from qualified employer plans and IRAs and to loans from qualified employer plans for those affected by the coronavirus.

Coronavirus-related distributions. Section 2202(a) of the CARES Act provides four special rules for “coronavirus-related distributions.” First, the legislation provides that coronavirus-related distributions up to an aggregate amount of $100,000 for each year are not subject to the normal ten-percent additional tax of section 72(t) that typically applies to distributions to a taxpayer who has not reached age 59½. Second, the legislation provides that, unless the taxpayer elects otherwise, any income resulting from a coronavirus-related distribution is reported ratably over the three-year period beginning with the year of the distribution. Third, the legislation permits the recipient of a coronavirus-related distribution to contribute up to the amount of the distribution to a qualified employer plan or IRA that would be eligible to receive a rollover contribution of the distribution. The contribution need not be made to the same plan from which the distribution was received and must be made during the three-year period beginning on the day after the date on which the distribution was received. If contributed within the required three-year period, the distribution and contribution are treated as made in a direct trustee-to-trustee transfer within 60 days of the distribution. The apparent intent of this rule is to permit the taxpayer to exclude the distribution from gross income to the extent it is recontributed within the required period. Because the recontribution might take place in a later tax year than the distribution, a taxpayer would presumably include the distribution in gross income in the year received and then file an amended return for the distribution year upon making the recontribution. Fourth, coronavirus-related distributions are not treated as eligible rollover distributions for purposes of the withholding rules and are therefore not subject to the normal 20% withholding that applies to eligible rollover distributions under section 3405(c). A coronavirus-related distribution is defined as any distribution from an eligible retirement plan as defined in section 402(c)(8)(B) (which includes qualified employer plans and IRAs) that was made on or after January 1, 2020, but before December 31, 2020, to an individual who is diagnosed (or whose spouse or dependent is diagnosed) with the virus under an approved test or

who experiences adverse financial consequences as a result of being quarantined, being furloughed or laid off or having work hours reduced due to such virus or disease, being unable to work due to lack of child care due to such virus or disease, closing or reducing hours of a business owned or operated by the individual due to such virus or disease, or other factors as determined by the Secretary of the Treasury (or the Secretary’s delegate).

Loans. For qualified individuals, section 2202(b) of CARES Act increases the limit on loans from qualified employer plans and permits repayment over a longer period of time. Normally, under section 72(p), a loan from a qualified employer plan is treated as a distribution unless it meets certain requirements. One requirement is that the loan must not exceed the lesser of (1) $50,000 or (2) the greater of one-half of the present value of the employee’s nonforfeitable accrued benefit or $10,000. A second requirement is that the loan must be repaid within five years. In the case of a loan made to a “qualified individual” during the period from March 27, 2020 (the date of enactment) through December 31, 2020, the legislation increases the limit on loans to the lesser of (1) $100,000 or (2) the greater of all of the present value of the employee’s nonforfeitable accrued benefit or $10,000.

The legislation also provides that, if a qualified individual has an outstanding plan loan on or after March 27, 2020 (the date of enactment) with a due date for any repayment occurring during the period beginning on March 27, 2020 (the date of enactment) and ending on December 31, 2020, then the due date is delayed for one year. If an individual takes advantage of this delay, then any subsequent repayments are adjusted to reflect the delay in payment and interest accruing during the delay. This appears to require re-amortization of the loan. A “qualified individual” is defined as an individual who would be eligible for the distribution rules described above.

a. The Service has provided guidance on the CARES Act provisions that facilitate access to retirement funds by those affected by COVID-19. Notice 2020-50 provides guidance regarding the special rules enacted as part of section 2202 of the CARES Act that apply to distributions from qualified employer plans and IRAs and to loans from qualified employer plans for those affected by the Coronavirus.

Distributions qualifying as coronavirus-related distributions. Section 1 of the Notice provides guidance in three areas relevant to determining whether a distribution is a “coronavirus-related distribution,” as defined in section 2202(a)(4)(A) of the CARES Act. First, the Notice provides guidance on individuals eligible to receive coronavirus-related distributions, whom the Notice describes as “qualified individuals.” Pursuant to the discretion granted by the statute, the Notice expands the category of qualified individuals beyond the individuals expressly described in the statute. According to the Notice, the category of qualified individuals includes those who experience adverse financial consequences as a result of the causes listed in the statute (such as being quarantined, furloughed or laid off, or having work hours reduced due to the virus), and also those who experience adverse financial consequences as a result of (1) “the individual having a reduction in pay (or self-employment income) due to COVID-19 or having a job offer rescinded or start date for a job delayed due to COVID-19,” (2) the individual’s spouse or a member of the individual’s household experiencing any of the same statutory or nonstatutory situations (i.e., being furloughed, laid off, having a start date for a job delayed, etc.), and (3) “closing or reducing hours of a business owned or operated by the individual’s spouse or a member of the individual’s household due to COVID-19.” For this purpose, a member of the individual’s household is someone who shares the individual’s principal residence.

Second, the Notice provides guidance on the distributions that qualify as coronavirus-related distributions. According to the Notice, there is no requirement that qualified individuals show that distributions were used for purposes related to COVID-19 in order to qualify as coronavirus-related distributions. Thus, “coronavirus-related distributions are permitted without regard to the qualified individual’s need for funds, and the amount of the distribution is not required to correspond to the extent of the adverse financial consequences experienced by the qualified individual.” The Notice further provides that, with only limited exceptions (specified in the Notice), a qualified individual can designate any distribution as a coronavirus-related distribution up to the statutory maximum of $100,000. The distributions that an individual can designate as coronavirus-related distributions therefore include any periodic payments, any amounts that would have been “required minimum distributions” (RMDs) in 2020 were it not for the suspension of RMDs by the CARES Act, any distributions received as a beneficiary, and any reduction or offset of a qualified individual’s account balance in order to repay a plan loan. If designated as coronavirus-related distributions, all of the distributions can be included in income ratably over three years. (As described below, however, not all of the distributions are eligible for recontribution and treatment as a tax-free rollover.) The Notice recognizes that “a qualified individual’s designation of a coronavirus-related distribution may be different from the employer retirement plan’s treatment of the distribution” for a variety of reasons, such as a distribution occurring before the effective date of a plan amendment providing for coronavirus-related distributions or the existence of multiple retirement accounts from which the individual withdraws more than $100,000 in the aggregate.

Third, the Notice provides guidance on which coronavirus-related distributions can be recontributed and treated as tax-free rollovers. According to the Notice, “only a coronavirus-related distribution that is eligible for tax-free rollover treatment under sections 402(c), 403(a)(4), 403(b)(8), 408(d)(3), or 457(e)(16) is permitted to be recontributed to an eligible retirement plan . . . . .” Such recontributions are treated as having been made in a trustee-to-trustee transfer to the eligible retirement plan. A coronavirus-related distribution paid to a qualified individual as a beneficiary of an employee or IRA owner (other than the surviving spouse of the employee or IRA owner) cannot be recontributed. Although distributions from an employer retirement plan made on account of hardship are not eligible for recontribution and treatment of tax-free rollovers, a distribution that meets the definition of a coronavirus-related distribution is not treated as made on account of hardship for purposes of the Notice.

Tax treatment of receiving and recontributing coronavirus-related distributions. Section 4 of the Notice provides guidance on the tax treatment of a qualified individual receiving and recontributing coronavirus-related distributions. The Notice provides that a qualified individual who designates a distribution as a coronavirus-related distribution includes the distribution in income ratably over a three-year period beginning in the year in which the distribution occurs unless the individual elects to include the entire amount of the taxable portion of the distribution in income in the year of the distribution. According to the Notice, an individual cannot elect out of the three-year ratable income inclusion after having timely filed the individual’s federal income tax return for the year of the distribution. Thus, the election out cannot be made on an amended tax return. Further, an individual must treat all coronavirus-related distributions consistently by either including all of them in income ratably over three years or including all of them in income in the year in which the distributions occurred. An individual must report coronavirus-related distributions on the individual’s federal income tax return (if required to be filed) and on Form 8915-E, Qualified 2020 Disaster Retirement Plan Distributions and Repayments. On Form 8915-E, which is expected to be available before the end of 2020, an individual will indicate whether he or she elects out of the three-year ratable income inclusion rule. An individual will also report recontributions of coronavirus-related distributions on Form 8915-E.

The Notice provides several examples that illustrate how an individual should report recontributions of coronavirus-related distributions when the individual has reported income from the distributions both ratably over three years and in a single year (the year of distribution). Generally, if an individual includes a coronavirus-related distribution in income entirely in the year of distribution and recontributes some or all of the distribution within the three-year period beginning on the day after the distribution, the individual will file an amended tax return for the year of distribution to reduce the portion of the distribution included in income and will also file a revised Form 8915-E. If an individual instead reports the income from a coronavirus-related distribution ratably over three years, then the individual will reduce the income reported on the return for the year in which the recontribution is made. The Notice permits an individual using the three-year ratable inclusion method who recontributes more than the amount reportable as income on the return for the year of recontribution to carry the excess recontribution back or forward to reduce income from the coronavirus-related distribution in other years; carrying such excess recontributions back would require filing an amended return. A qualified individual who dies before including the full taxable amount of the coronavirus-related distribution in gross income must include the remainder of the distribution in gross income for the taxable year that includes the individual’s death. If an individual is receiving substantially equal periodic payments from an eligible retirement plan and receives a coronavirus-related distribution, the receipt of the coronavirus-related distribution will not be treated as a change in substantially equal payments as described in section 72(t)(4).

Retirement plans and IRAs making or receiving recontributions of coronavirus-related distributions. Section 2 of the Notice provides guidance for employer retirement plans making coronavirus-related distributions on topics such as the plan’s option to treat distributions as coronavirus-related distributions; the dates by which any plan amendments must be made; the fact that the normal requirements of offering a direct rollover, withholding 20% of the distribution, and providing a section 402(f) notice do not apply to coronavirus-related distributions; and the ability of plan administrators to rely on an individual’s certification that the individual is a qualified individual in determining whether a distribution is a coronavirus-related distribution unless the administrator has actual knowledge to the contrary.

Section 3 of the Notice provides guidance for employer retirement plans and IRAs on the required tax reporting for coronavirus-related distributions and on accepting recontributions of such distributions. The Notice provides that coronavirus-related distributions should be reported on Form 1099-R with either distribution code 2 (early distribution, exception applies) or distribution code 1 (early distribution, no known exception) in Box 7 of Form 1099-R.

Plan loans. Section 5 of the Notice provides guidance on the changes made by the CARES Act that affect loans from qualified employer plans (i.e., the legislation’s increase in the limit on such loans and its extension of the period of repayment for certain outstanding loans). The Notice makes clear that employer plans may, but are not required to, offer this permissible delay in loan repayment. The Notice provides a safe harbor that qualified employer plans can use to satisfy the requirements of section 72(p) (i.e., to avoid having a plan loan treated as a distribution) and provides an example that illustrates the safe harbor and the re-amortization of a plan loan for which repayment is delayed.

2. You don’t have to CARE about RMDs during 2020.

Section 2203 of the CARES Act amends section 401(a)(9) by adding section 401(a)(9)(I), which waives the requirement to take RMDs for 2020. If a taxpayer turned 70½ in 2019, he or she was required take his or her 2019 minimum distribution by April 1, 2020. Such taxpayers, and others who previously had turned 70½, also must take their 2020 RMD by December 31, 2020. The CARES Act suspends both RMDs that should have been taken by April 1, 2020, and those that normally would be taken by December 31, 2020. One issue that arises is how to treat RMDs that taxpayers took in 2020 before passage of the legislation waiving the requirement to take RMDs. The CARES Act does not address this issue. Possible ways to address this situation include depositing the funds in an eligible retirement plan within 60 days and treating the withdrawal and contribution as a tax-free rollover. Another possibility is treating the withdrawal as a coronavirus-related distribution if the applicable requirements are met, reporting the income ratably over three years, and redepositing within three years to treat the withdrawal and contribution as a tax-free withdrawal.

As discussed in our previous article, section 114 of the SECURE Act amended section 401(a)(9)(C)(i)(I) to increase the age at which RMDs must begin to 72 for distributions required to be made after December 31, 2019, with respect to individuals who attain age 70½ after such date.

a. The Service has issued guidance regarding the waiver of RMDs in 2020. Notice 2020-51 provides guidance relating to the waiver of 2020 RMDs. The Notice permits rollovers of waived RMDs and certain related payments and extends the normal 60-day rollover period for certain distributions to August 31, 2020. The Notice also answers several questions in Q&A format related to the waiver of RMDs in 2020. Finally, the Notice provides guidance to plan administrators, including a sample plan amendment that, if adopted, would provide participants a choice whether to receive waived RMDs and certain related payments.

3. It’s okay to discriminate on the basis of age! The section 72(t) ten-percent penalty for those receiving distributions prior to age 59½ does not violate the Fifth Amendment’s Due Process Clause.

In general, under section 72(t)(1), a taxpayer who receives a distribution from a qualified retirement plan must pay an additional tax equal to ten percent of the total distributions for that year. Pursuant to section 72(t)(2)(A), the ten-percent additional tax, commonly referred to as a penalty, does not apply to specified types of distributions, including those made to a taxpayer who has attained the age of 59½ or who is disabled (as defined in section 72(m)(7)) at the time of the distribution. In Conard v. Commissioner, the taxpayer, Ms. Conard, was not yet age 59½ nor was she eligible for any other exceptions to the penalty when she received nine distributions totaling $61,777 from her qualified retirement plan in 2008. While Ms. Conard properly reported the total amount of the distributions, she neither reported nor paid the additional ten-percent tax. Instead, Ms. Conard attached a statement to her Form 1040 taking the position that the additional tax was arbitrary and capricious. The Service determined a deficiency of $6,177 attributable to the additional ten-percent tax on premature distributions. Representing herself in the Tax Court, Ms. Conard argued that the exception for distributions made to taxpayers who are at least age 59½ violated “the U.S. Constitution’s guarantee of equal treatment under the law.”

Constitutional Analysis. The Due Process Clause of the Fifth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution provides that no person shall be “deprived of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law.” The Due Process Clause imposes on the federal government requirements similar to those that the Equal Protection Clause of the Fourteenth Amendment imposes on the individual states. Section 1 of the Fourteenth Amendment prohibits states from “deny[ing] to any person within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the laws.” In determining whether Ms. Conard’s right to equal protection was violated in this case, the Tax Court (Judge Toro) relied on the Seventh Circuit’s framework in Estate of Edward Kunze v. Commissioner, reasoning that where a statute affects economic rights and neither infringes on a substantive constitutional right nor discriminates on the basis of a suspect classification, such as race, the statute is subject to judicial scrutiny only under the lower rational-basis test. Under that test, “a statute will be sustained if the legislature could have reasonably concluded that the challenged classification would promote a legitimate state purpose.” According to Estate of Kunze, legislatures have broad authority to enact tax statutes that create distinctions and classifications among taxpayers, and the Constitution does not require either perfect equality or absolute logical consistency as between taxpayers. With respect to a tax statute, there is a presumption of constitutionality that may be overcome only by demonstrating that a classification “is a hostile and oppressive discrimination against particular persons and classes.”

Court’s Reasoning. Judge Toro applied the framework discussed above in evaluating Ms. Conard’s equal protection challenge to the additional tax imposed by section 72(t) and concluded that the proper standard of review is the rational-basis test. Under this test, the issue narrowly becomes whether the classification bears a reasonable relationship to some legitimate government purpose. The court turned to the legislative history of section 72(t). In proposing the enactment of section 72, the Senate Finance Committee reasoned that “[t]he absence of withdrawal restrictions in the case of some tax-favored arrangements allows participants in those arrangements to treat them as general savings accounts with favorable tax features rather than as retirement savings arrangements.” The Committee explained its reasoning as follows:

Although the committee recognizes the importance of encouraging taxpayers to save for retirement, the committee also believes that tax incentives for retirement savings are inappropriate unless the savings generally are not diverted to nonretirement uses. One way to prevent such diversion is to impose an additional income tax on early withdrawals from tax-favored retirement savings arrangements in order to discourage withdrawals and to recapture a measure of the tax benefits that have been provided. Accordingly, the committee believes it appropriate to apply an early withdrawal tax to all tax-favored retirement arrangements.

Judge Toro reasoned that this explanation, among other explanations in the legislative history, is entirely rational. If taxpayers were allowed to withdraw amounts from qualified retirement plans prior to their retirement years, such withdrawals could be “diverted to nonretirement uses,” which would frustrate the congressional objective of encouraging taxpayers to save for retirement. Thus, although section 72(t) provides different rules for differently situated taxpayers, it did not violate the taxpayer’s constitutional rights. Because Ms. Conard was not yet age 59½ and did not qualify for any other exception, she was subject to the additional ten-percent tax of section 72(t).

4. Some inflation adjusted numbers for 2021.

In Notice 2020-79, the Service provided inflation adjusted numbers for 2021.

  • Elective deferrals in sections 401(k), 403(b), and 457 plans remain unchanged at $19,500 with a catch-up provision for employees aged 50 or older that remains unchanged at $6,500.
  • The limit on contributions to an IRA remains unchanged at $6,000. The AGI phase-out range for contributions to a traditional IRA by employees covered by a workplace retirement plan is increased to $66,000–$76,000 (from $65,000–$75,000) for single filers and heads of household, increased to $105,000–$125,000 (from $104,000–$124,000) for married couples filing jointly in which the spouse who makes the IRA contribution is covered by a workplace retirement plan, and increased to $198,000–$208,000 (from $196,000–$206,000) for an IRA contributor who is not covered by a workplace retirement plan and is married to someone who is covered. The phase-out range for contributions to a Roth IRA is increased to $198,000–$208,000 (from $196,000–$206,000) for married couples filing jointly and increased to $125,000–$140,000 (from $124,000–$139,000) for singles and heads of household.
  • The annual benefit from a defined benefit plan under section 415 remains unchanged at $230,000.
  • The limit for defined contribution plans is increased to $58,000 (from $57,000).
  • The amount of compensation that may be taken into account for various plans is increased to $290,000 (from $285,000) and is increased to $430,000 (from $425,000) for government plans.
  • The AGI limit for the retirement savings contribution credit for low- and moderate-income workers is increased to $66,000 (from $65,000) for married couples filing jointly, increased to $49,500 (from $48,750) for heads of household, and increased to $33,000 (from $32,500) for singles and married individuals filing separately.

5. Despite the recent pandemic, we appear to be living longer! Final Regulations provide guidance under section 401 relating to new life expectancy and distribution period tables used to calculate minimum distributions from qualified plans, IRAs, and annuities.

The Treasury Department and the Service have finalized Proposed Regulations that provide guidance on the use of updated life expectancy and distribution period tables under Regulation section 1.401(a)(9)-9. In general, the Regulations seek to update the existing tables using current mortality data based on mortality rates for 2021. The new tables allow for longer life expectancies than the current tables under the existing regulations and generally result in a reduction of RMDs. In turn, this allows for retention of larger amounts in retirement accounts in contemplation of participants having slightly longer lives. The Preamble to the final Regulations gives the following example:

[A] 72-year-old IRA owner who applied the Uniform Lifetime Table under formerly applicable § 1.401(a)(9)-9 to calculate required minimum distributions used a life expectancy of 25.6 years. Applying the Uniform Lifetime Table set forth in these regulations, a 72-year-old IRA owner will use a life expectancy of 27.4 years to calculate required minimum distributions.

The updated life expectancy and distribution period tables apply to distribution calendar years beginning on or after January 1, 2022. Thus, for an individual who attains the age at which RMDs must begin (age 72) in 2021, the Regulations would not apply to the distribution for the 2021 calendar year (which must be taken by April 1, 2022). Instead, the Regulations would apply to the required minimum distribution for the individual’s 2022 calendar year, which must be taken by December 31, 2022. The Regulations also include a transition rule that applies under certain circumstances if an employee dies prior to January 1, 2022. The transition rule applies in the following three situations: (1) the employee died with a nonspousal designated beneficiary; (2) the employee died after the required beginning date without a designated beneficiary; and (3) the employee, who is younger than the designated beneficiary, died after the required beginning date. Under these circumstances, a set of specific rules applies in relation to the distribution period for calendar years following the calendar year of the employee’s death. A similar transition rule applies if an employee’s sole beneficiary is the employee’s surviving spouse and the spouse died before January 1, 2022.

C. Nonqualified Deferred Compensation, Section 83, and Stock Options

There were no significant developments regarding this topic during 2020.

D. Individual Retirement Accounts

There were no significant developments regarding this topic during 2020.

V. Personal Income and Deductions

A. Rates

There were no significant developments regarding this topic during 2020.

B. Miscellaneous Income

1. Who would have thought that selling your life insurance policy to a stranger was a good idea anyway?

Sections 13520–13522 of the TCJA modified the rules concerning the exclusion of life insurance proceeds upon the death of the insured as well as the determination of basis in a life insurance contract. The modified rules primarily impact the tax treatment of so-called life settlements (where a stranger purchases a life insurance policy on a healthy insured) and viatical settlements (where a stranger purchases a life insurance policy on a terminally ill insured).

As explained in detail below, amended section 101 now contains a special carve-out to the normal life insurance policy transfer-for-value rules. This special carve-out applies to “reportable policy sales,” which generally will include life-settlement and viatical-settlement transactions. Furthermore, section 13520 of the TCJA adds new section 6050Y to impose unique reporting requirements on the transferor and the insurer with respect to “reportable policy sales.” In part, new section 6050Y will require disclosure of “reportable death benefits,” as defined, but essentially meaning death benefits paid on an insurance policy that has been transferred in a “reportable policy sale.”

Finally, section 13521 of the TCJA adds a new subparagraph (B) to section 1016(a)(1) to clarify (and reverse the Service’s position in Revenue Ruling 2009-13) that basis in an annuity or life insurance contract includes premiums and other costs paid without reduction for mortality expenses or other reasonable charges incurred under the contract (also known as “cost of insurance”). In Notice 2018-41, the Service announced that it will issue proposed regulations providing guidance concerning the new rules and that otherwise required reporting under section 6050Y will be delayed until after final regulations are published. We commend Notice 2018-41 for careful study by those readers advising clients on life-settlement and viatical-settlement transactions.

The changes made by TCJA to section 101 and the addition of section 6050Y (which are the focus of the Notice) apply to taxable years beginning after 2017. The amendment adding new section 1016(a)(1)(B) applies retroactively to transactions entered into after August 25, 2009.

a. Some background. Section 101 generally excludes from gross income the proceeds of a life insurance policy payable by reason of the death of the insured. If, however, a life insurance policy is transferred for valuable consideration prior to the death of the insured (i.e., “a transfer for value”), then death benefit proceeds (to the extent they exceed the transferee-owner’s basis in the policy) are includable in gross income by the transferee-owner of the policy upon the insured’s death unless an exception applies. These exceptions provide that, notwithstanding a transfer for value, death benefit proceeds remain excludable if (1) the transferee-owner’s basis in the policy is determined in whole or in part by reference to the transferor’s basis (e.g., a carryover basis transaction) or (2) the transferee-owner is the insured, a partner of the insured, a partnership in which the insured is a partner, or a corporation of which the insured is a shareholder or officer. If a transfer-for-value exception does not apply, then Revenue Ruling 2009-14 sets out the Service’s position that any death benefit payable to the transferee-owner is ordinary income (to the extent it exceeds the transferee-owner’s basis in the policy) while a subsequent sale of the policy by the transferee-owner before the death of the insured can produce capital gain.

b. Why new rules? Life-settlement and viatical-settlement transactions have increased over the last several years. The increase in the estate and gift tax exemption has contributed in part to this market because some previously purchased life insurance policies are no longer needed to pay anticipated estate taxes. Changes to restrictive state laws concerning so-called “stranger-owned” life insurance also have contributed to an increase in these transactions.

In a typical life-settlement transaction, the policyholder, often the individual insured under the life insurance contract, sells his or her life insurance contract to an unrelated person. The consideration paid generally is a lump-sum cash payment that is less than the death benefit on the policy, but more than the amount that would be received by the policyholder upon surrender of the life insurance contract.

The Service previously announced its position regarding the tax treatment of life-settlement transactions in Revenue Ruling 2009-13. Oversimplifying somewhat, Revenue Ruling 2009-13 provides that the seller of a policy in a life-settlement transaction recognizes capital gain except with respect to the “inside buildup” in the policy (e.g., growth in cash surrender value of whole life insurance) over prior premium payments. This latter amount attributable to the inside buildup in the policy is characterized as ordinary income. The Service also took the position in Revenue Ruling 2009-13 that the seller’s basis in a transferred policy must be adjusted downward by the cost of insurance separate from the investment in the contract. As discussed above, TCJA’s addition of new section 1016(a)(1)(B) reverses the Service’s position in this regard.

A viatical settlement, a special type of life-settlement transaction, may involve the sale of a life insurance contract by the owner, but under section 101(g) may not necessarily be taxed like a life-settlement transaction. Under a viatical settlement, a policyholder may sell or assign a life insurance contract after the insured has become terminally or chronically ill (within the meaning of section 101(g)). If any portion of the death benefit under a life insurance contract on the life of an insured who is terminally or chronically ill is sold (through the sale of the life insurance contract) or assigned in a viatical settlement to a “viatical-settlement provider” (as defined), the amount paid for the sale or assignment of that portion is treated as an amount paid under the life insurance contract by reason of the death of the insured (which may be excludable under section 101), rather than gain from the sale or assignment (which generally would not be excludable under section 101 unless a transfer-for-value exception applied). A viatical-settlement provider for purposes of these rules is a person regularly engaged in the trade or business of purchasing, or taking assignments of, life insurance contracts insuring the lives of terminally or chronically ill individuals provided certain requirements are met.

c. So, what’s in the new rules? Under new section 101(a)(3), the longstanding transfer-for-value exceptions described above do not apply if the transfer of the life insurance policy is a “reportable policy sale.” A reportable policy sale is defined as “the acquisition of an interest in a life insurance contract, directly or indirectly, if the acquirer has no substantial family, business, or financial relationship with the insured apart from the acquirer’s interest in such life insurance contract.” Pursuant to section 101(a)(3)(B), the term “indirectly” as used in this context applies to the acquisition of an interest in a life insurance contract via a partnership, trust, or other entity. Beyond the above statutory language, however, new section 101(a)(3) provides no further guidance as to the specifics, such as the “substantial family, business, or financial relationships” (including ownership via partnerships, trusts, or other entities) that exempt an otherwise reportable policy sale from the special inclusion rule of new section 101(a)(3). In effect, then, Notice 2018-41 is the Service’s means of telling insurers and those engaged in life-settlement and viatical-settlement transactions that the Service knows the statutes are unclear and that the necessary guidance necessary to comply with the new rules is forthcoming.

d. Final Regulations provide guidance on information reporting obligations under section 6050Y related to reportable policy sales of life insurance contracts and payments of reportable death benefits. The Treasury Department and the Service have finalized Proposed Regulations that provide guidance on the information reporting obligations created by section 6050Y related to reportable policy sales of life insurance contracts and payments of reportable death benefits. Section 6050Y was enacted as part of the TCJA. The Regulations also provide guidance on the amount of death benefits excluded from gross income under section 101 following a reportable policy sale. The final Regulations generally are effective after October 31, 2019. The statutory changes made by Congress, however, apply to taxable years beginning after 2017. Transition rules apply to reportable policy sales made and reportable death benefits paid after December 31, 2018, and on or before October 31, 2019.

e. Under section 1016, the cost basis of a life insurance contract is not reduced by the cost of insurance, regardless of the purpose for purchasing the contract. Revenue Ruling 2020-5 reflects a modification to the determination of a taxpayer’s basis in a life insurance contract made by the TCJA. Section 13521 of the TCJA added a new subparagraph (B) to section 1016(a)(1) to clarify (and reverse the Service’s position in Revenue Ruling 2009-13) that basis in an annuity or life insurance contract includes premiums and other costs paid without reduction for mortality expenses or other reasonable charges incurred under the contract (also known as “cost of insurance”). In general, mortality and expense charges are charges by the insurance company that cover the company’s cost of death benefits and expenses related to the costs of providing and administering the insurance contract. Mortality and expense charges together are referred to as the “cost of insurance.” Prior to the TCJA amendments to section 1016(a)(1), Revenue Ruling 2009-13 and Revenue Ruling 2009-14 set forth the rules for determining a taxpayer’s basis as a component of the calculation of gain or loss on the sale of a life insurance contract. In Revenue Ruling 2009-13, taxpayer A purchased a life insurance contract for protection against economic loss. A later sold the life insurance contract to B, an unrelated third party. In calculating gain, A was required to reduce the basis of the contract by the insurance company’s cost of insurance. However, in Revenue Ruling 2009-14, the Service ruled on the same facts except that B, who enjoyed no insurance protection from the contract, later sold the insurance contract to C solely with a view toward making a profit. Under these circumstances, the Service ruled that B would not be required to reduce the basis of the insurance contract by the cost of insurance. Applying the TCJA amendment to section 1016(a)(1), Revenue Ruling 2020-5 provides that upon sale of an insurance contract, basis is not reduced by the cost of insurance. This is true regardless of whether the insurance contract is held for insurance protection or purely for investment. Accordingly, as in the first situation above where A holds an insurance contract for protection against loss and sells the contract to B, A is no longer required to reduce the basis in the contact by the cost of insurance. The ruling is effective for transactions entered into on or after August 26, 2009.

2. Congress has extended through 2025 the exclusion for discharge of qualified principal residence indebtedness.

Section 114 of the Taxpayer Certainty and Disaster Tax Relief Act of 2020 extended through December 31, 2025, the section 108(a)(1)(E) exclusion for up to $2 million ($1 million for married individuals filing separately) of income from the cancellation of qualified principal residence indebtedness. The provision had expired after 2017 and was retroactively extended by section 101 of the Taxpayer Certainty and Disaster Tax Relief Act of 2019 to apply for calendar years 2018, 2019, and 2020. As most recently amended, the provision applies for calendar years 2021 through 2025.

3. Volunteer firefighters and emergency medical responders can exclude from gross income any reduction or rebate of state or local tax and up to $50 per month of any payments they receive for their service for 2020 and beyond.

Section 103 of the Taxpayer Certainty and Disaster Tax Relief Act of 2020 made permanent section 139B. Section 139B allows volunteer firefighters and emergency medical responders to exclude from gross income any reduction or rebate of state or local tax they receive for their service as well as up to $50 per month of any payment they receive on account of their service. Congress enacted section 139B in 2007 but the provision had expired for taxable years beginning after 2010. Congress had reinstated section 139B for taxable years beginning after December 31, 2019, and before January 1, 2021 (i.e., only for 2020) in section 301 of the SECURE Act. As most recently amended, the provision is permanent for taxable years beginning after 2020.

C. Hobby Losses and Section 280A Home Office and Vacation Homes

There were no significant developments regarding this topic during 2020.

D. Deductions and Credits for Personal Expenses

1. Has the federal deduction for your high property or state income taxes made them easier to bear? Brace yourself! The deduction for state and local taxes not paid or accrued in carrying on a trade or business or an income-producing activity is limited to $10,000.

Section 11042 of the TCJA amended section 164(b) by adding section 164(b)(6). For individual taxpayers, this provision generally (1) eliminates the deduction for foreign real property taxes and (2) limits to $10,000 ($5,000 for married individuals filing separately) a taxpayer’s itemized deductions on Schedule A for the aggregate of state or local property taxes, income taxes, and sales taxes deducted in lieu of income taxes. This provision applies to taxable years beginning after 2017 and before 2026. The provision does not affect the deduction of state or local property taxes or sales taxes that are paid or accrued in carrying on a trade or business or an income-producing activity (i.e., an activity described in section 212) that are properly deductible on Schedules C, E, or F. For example, property taxes imposed on residential rental property will continue to be deductible. With respect to income taxes, an individual can deduct only foreign income taxes paid or accrued in carrying on a trade or business or an income-producing activity. As under current law, an individual cannot deduct state or local income taxes as a business expense even if the individual is engaged in a trade or business as a sole proprietor.

a. The Service is not going to give blue states a pass on creative workarounds to the new $10,000 limitation on the personal deduction for state and local taxes. In response to new section 164(b)(6), many states—including Connecticut, New Jersey, and New York—have enacted workarounds to the $10,000 limitation. For instance, New Jersey reportedly has enacted legislation giving property owners a special tax credit against otherwise assessable property taxes if the owner makes a contribution to charitable funds designated by local governments. Connecticut reportedly has enacted a new provision that taxes the income of passthrough entities such as S corporations and partnerships but allows the shareholders or members a corresponding tax credit against certain state and local taxes assessed against them individually. Notice 2018-54 announces that the Treasury Department and the Service are aware of these workarounds and that “proposed regulations will be issued to make clear that the requirements of the Internal Revenue Code, informed by substance-over-form principles, govern the federal income tax treatment of such transfers.” In other words, blue states, don’t bank on a charitable contribution or a flow-through income tax substituting for otherwise assessable state and local taxes to avoid new section 164(b)(6). The Authors predict that this will be an interesting subject to watch over the upcoming months.

b. Speaking of looming trouble spots: The availability of a business expense deduction under section 162 for payments to charities is not affected by the recently issued Proposed Regulations, says the Service. In a news release, the Service clarified that the availability of a deduction for ordinary and necessary business expenses under section 162 for businesses that make payments to charities or government agencies, and for which the business receives state tax credits, is not affected by the Proposed Regulations issued in August 2018 (see below), which generally disallow a federal charitable contribution deduction under section 170 for charitable contributions made by an individual for which the individual receives a state tax credit. Thus, if a payment to a government agency or charity qualifies as an ordinary and necessary business expense under section 162(a), it is not subject to disallowance in the manner in which deductions under section 170 are subject to disallowance. This is true, according to the news release, regardless of whether the taxpayer is doing business as a sole proprietor, partnership, or corporation. According to a “frequently asked question” posted on the Service’s website, “a business taxpayer making a payment to a charitable or government entity described in § 170(c) is generally permitted to deduct the entire payment as an ordinary and necessary business expense under § 162 if the payment is made with a business purpose.”

c. More about trouble spots: The Service must be thinking, “will this ever end?” Notwithstanding the above guidance, the Treasury Department and the Service obviously have continued to receive questions regarding the deductibility of business expenses that may indirectly bear on the taxpayer’s state and local tax liability. In response, Revenue Procedure 2019-12 provides certain safe harbors. For C corporations that make payments to or for the use of section 170(c) charitable organizations and that receive or expect to receive corresponding tax credits against state or local taxes, the C corporation nevertheless may treat such payment as meeting the requirements of an ordinary and necessary business expense for purposes of section 162(a).

A similar safe-harbor rule applies for entities other than C corporations, but only if the entity is a “specified passthrough entity.” A specified pass-through entity for this purpose is one that meets four requirements. First, the entity must be a business entity other than a C corporation that is regarded for all federal income tax purposes as separate from its owners under Regulation section 301.7701-3 (i.e., it is not single-member LLC). Second, the entity must operate a trade or business within the meaning of section 162. Third, the entity must be subject to a state or local tax incurred in carrying on its trade or business that is imposed directly on the entity. Fourth, in return for a payment to a section 170(c) charitable organization, the entity receives or expects to receive a state or local tax credit that the entity applies or expects to apply to offset a state or local tax imposed upon the entity. The Revenue Procedure applies to payments made on or after January 1, 2018.

Revenue Procedure 2019-12 provides the following examples of the safe-harbor rules applicable to C corporations and specified passthrough entities:

(1) A, a C corporation engaged in a trade or business, makes a payment of $1,000 to an organization described in section 170(c). In return for the payment, A receives or expects to receive a dollar-for-dollar state tax credit to be applied to A’s state corporate income tax liability. Under section 3 of this revenue procedure, A may treat the $1,000 payment as meeting the requirements of an ordinary and necessary business expense under section 162.
(2) B, a C corporation engaged in a trade or business, makes a payment of $1,000 to an organization described in section 170(c). In return for the payment, B receives or expects to receive a tax credit equal to 80 percent of the amount of this payment ($800) to be applied to B’s local real property tax liability. Under section3 of this revenue procedure, B may treat $800 as meeting the requirements of an ordinary and necessary business expense under section 162. The treatment of the remaining $200 will depend upon the facts and circumstances and is not affected by this revenue procedure.
(2) S is an S corporation engaged in a trade or business and is owned by individuals C and D. S makes a payment of $1,000 to an organization described in section 170(c). In return for the payment, S receives or expects to receive a state tax credit equal to 80 percent of the amount of this payment ($800) to be applied to S’s local real property tax liability incurred by S in carrying on its trade or business. Under applicable state and local law, the real property tax is imposed at the entity level (not the owner level). Under section 4 of this revenue procedure, S may treat $800 of the payment as meeting the requirements of an ordinary and necessary business expense under section 162. The treatment of the remaining $200 will depend upon the facts and circumstances and is not affected by this revenue procedure.

d. And like Rameses II in The Ten Commandments, the Treasury says, “so let it be written; so let it (finally!) be done.” The Treasury Department and the Service have finalized, with only minor changes, proposed amendments to the Regulations under section 170 that purport to close the door on any state-enacted workarounds to the $10,000 limitation of section 164(b)(6) on a taxpayer’s itemized deductions on Schedule A for the aggregate of state or local property taxes, income taxes, and sales taxes deducted in lieu of income taxes. Regulation section 1.170A-1(h)(3) generally requires taxpayers to reduce the amount of any federal income tax charitable contribution deduction by the amount of any corresponding state or local tax credit the taxpayer receives or expects to receive. The final Regulations further provide that a corresponding state or local tax deduction normally will not reduce the taxpayer’s federal deduction provided the state and local deduction does not exceed the taxpayer’s federal deduction. To the extent the state and local charitable deduction exceeds the taxpayer’s federal deduction, the taxpayer’s federal deduction is reduced. Finally, the final Regulations provide an exception whereby the taxpayer’s federal charitable contribution deduction is not reduced if the corresponding state or local credit does not exceed 15% of the taxpayer’s federal deduction. Pursuant to an amendment to Regulation section 1.642(c)-3(g), these same rules apply in determining the charitable contribution deductions of trusts and estates under section 642(c).

Three examples in the Regulations illustrate the application of these rules:

Example 1. A, an individual, makes a payment of $1,000 to X, an entity listed in section 170(c). In exchange for the payment, A receives or expects to receive a state tax credit of 70 percent of the amount of A’s payment to X. Under paragraph (h)(3)(i) of this section, A’s charitable contribution deduction is reduced by $700 (0.70 × $1,000). This reduction occurs regardless of whether A may claim the state tax credit in that year. Thus, A’s charitable contribution deduction for the $1,000 payment to X may not exceed $300.
Example 2. B, an individual, transfers a painting to Y, an entity listed in section 170(c). At the time of the transfer, the painting has a fair market value of $100,000. In exchange for the painting, B receives or expects to receive a state tax credit equal to 10 percent of the fair market value of the painting. Under paragraph (h)(3)(vi) of this section, B is not required to apply the general rule of paragraph (h)(3)(i) of this section because the amount of the tax credit received or expected to be received by B does not exceed 15 percent of the fair market value of the property transferred to Y. Accordingly, the amount of B’s charitable contribution deduction for the transfer of the painting is not reduced under paragraph (h)(3)(i) of this section.
Example 3. C, an individual, makes a payment of $1,000 to Z, an entity listed in section 170(c). In exchange for the payment, under state M law, C is entitled to receive a state tax deduction equal to the amount paid by C to Z. Under paragraph (h)(3)(ii)(A) of this section, C is not required to reduce its charitable contribution deduction under section 170(a) on account of the state tax deduction.

Effective date. The final Regulations are effective for charitable contributions made after August 27, 2018.

And another thing . . . . The final Regulations do not discern between abusive “workarounds” enacted in response to section 164(b)(6) and legitimate state and local tax credit programs such as the Georgia Rural Hospital Tax Credit that preceded the TCJA. The Georgia Rural Hospital Tax Credit program was enacted in 2017 to combat the closure of many rural hospitals in Georgia due to financial difficulties. Under the program, individuals and corporations making contributions to designated rural hospitals receive a 90% dollar-for-dollar tax credit against their Georgia state income tax liability. Is the Georgia Rural Hospital Tax Credit program adversely affected by the Regulations under section 164(b)(6)? In our view, the answer is “yes,” and a Georgia taxpayer’s federal charitable contribution deduction for a donation to a Georgia rural hospital is reduced by 90%. The Treasury Department and the Service have adopted this view, which is reflected in the Preamble to the final Regulations:

The regulations are based on longstanding federal tax law principles that apply equally to all taxpayers. To ensure fair and consistent treatment, the final regulations do not distinguish between taxpayers who make transfers to state and local tax credit programs enacted after the [TCJA] and those who make transfers to tax credit programs existing prior to the enactment of the Act. Neither the intent of the section 170(c) organization, nor the date of enactment of a particular state tax credit program, are relevant to the application of the quid pro quo principle.

Note, however, that it may be possible under state or local law for a taxpayer to waive any corresponding state or local tax credit and thereby claim a full charitable contribution for federal income tax purposes. In the Preamble to the final Regulations, the Treasury Department and the Service noted that taxpayers might disclaim a credit by not applying for it if the credit calls for an application (or applying for a lesser amount) and requested comments as to how taxpayers may decline state or local tax credits in other situations. It is also possible, pursuant to a safe harbor established in Notice 2019-12 (see below), for an individual who itemizes deductions to treat as a payment of state or local tax on Schedule A payments made to a charitable organization for which the individual receives a state or local tax credit.

e. Down the rabbit hole we go. A safe harbor allows individuals who itemize to treat as payments of state or local tax any payments to section 170(c) charitable organizations that are disallowed as federal charitable contribution deductions because the individual will receive a state or local tax credit for the payment. In Notice 2019-12, the Treasury Department and the Service announced they intend to publish a proposed regulation that will amend Regulation section 1.164-3 to provide a safe harbor for individuals who itemize deductions and make a payment to or for the use of an entity described in section 170(c) in return for a state or local tax credit. Until the proposed regulations are issued, taxpayers can rely on the safe harbor as set forth in the Notice. Section 3 of the Notice provides as follows:

Under this safe harbor, an individual who itemizes deductions and who makes a payment to a section 170(c) entity in return for a state or local tax credit may treat as a payment of state or local tax for purposes of section 164 the portion of such payment for which a charitable contribution deduction under section 170 is or will be disallowed under final regulations. This treatment as a payment of state or local tax under section 164 is allowed in the taxable year in which the payment is made to the extent the resulting credit is applied, consistent with applicable state or local law, to offset the individual’s state or local tax liability for such taxable year or the preceding taxable year. To the extent the resulting credit is not applied to offset the individual’s state or local tax liability for the taxable year of the payment or the preceding taxable year, any excess credit permitted to be carried forward may be treated as a payment of state or local tax under section 164 in the taxable year or years for which the carryover credit is applied, consistent with applicable state or local law, to offset the individual’s state or local tax liability.

The safe harbor does not apply to a transfer of property and does not permit a taxpayer to treat the amount of any payment as deductible under more than one provision of the Code or regulations. The safe harbor applies to payments made after August 27, 2018. Three examples illustrate the application of these rules:

Example 1. In year 1, Taxpayer A makes a payment of $500 to an entity described in section 170(c). In return for the payment, A receives a dollar-for-dollar state income tax credit. Prior to application of the credit, A’s state income tax liability for year 1 was $500 or more; A applies the $500 credit to A’s year 1 state income tax liability. Under section 3 of this notice, A treats the $500 payment as a payment of state income tax in year 1 for purposes of section 164. To determine A’s deduction amount, A must apply the provisions of section 164 applicable to payments of state and local taxes, including the limitation under section 164(b)(6).
Example 2. In year 1, Taxpayer B makes a payment of $7,000 to an entity described in section 170(c). In return for the payment, B receives a dollar-for-dollar state income tax credit, which under state law may be carried forward for three taxable years. Prior to application of the credit, B’s state income tax liability for year 1 was $5,000; B applies $5,000 of the $7,000 credit to B’s year 1 state income tax liability. Under section 3 of this notice, B treats $5,000 of the $7,000 payment as a payment of state income tax in year 1 for purposes of section 164. Prior to application of the remaining credit, B’s state income tax liability for year 2 exceeds $2,000; B applies the excess credit of $2,000 to B’s year 2 state income tax liability. For year 2, B treats the $2,000 as a payment of state income tax for purposes of section 164. To determine B’s deduction amounts in years 1 and 2, B must apply the provisions of section 164 applicable to payments of state and local taxes, including the limitation under section 164(b)(6).
Example 3. In year 1, Taxpayer C makes a payment of $7,000 to an entity described in section 170(c). In return for the payment, C receives a local real property tax credit equal to 25 percent of the amount of this payment ($1,750). Prior to application of the credit, C’s local real property tax liability in year 1 was $3,500; C applies the $1,750 credit to C’s year 1 local real property tax liability. Under section 3 of this notice, for year 1, C treats $1,750 as a payment of local real property tax for purposes of section 164. To determine C’s deduction amount, C must apply the provisions of section 164 applicable to payments of state and local taxes, including the limitation under section 164(b)(6).

f. Final Regulations reflect previously issued guidance on payments to section 170(c) charitable organizations that result in state or local tax credits and provide additional guidance. The Treasury Department and the Service have finalized Proposed Regulations that reflect previously issued guidance, including safe harbors, regarding payments to section 170(c) charitable organizations for business purposes or that result in state or local tax credits. The final Regulations generally provide the following guidance.

Amendments to clarify the standard for payments to a charitable organization to qualify as a business expense. The final Regulations amend Regulation section 1.162-15(a) to provide:

A payment or transfer to or for the use of an entity described in section 170(c) that bears a direct relationship to the taxpayer’s trade or business and that is made with a reasonable expectation of financial return commensurate with the amount of the payment or transfer may constitute an allowable deduction as a trade or business expense rather than a charitable contribution deduction under section 170.

This revision is intended to more clearly reflect current law regarding when payments from a business to a charitable organization qualify as a business expense (rather than as a charitable contribution). The Regulations provide two examples, both of which involve businesses making payments to a section 170(c) charitable organization in exchange for advertising (e.g., a half-page advertisement in the program for a church concert) or to generate name recognition and goodwill (e.g., donating one percent of gross sales to charity each year).

These amendments apply to amounts paid or property transferred after December 17, 2019. Nevertheless, taxpayers can choose to apply the amendments to payments or transfers made on or after January 1, 2018.

Safe harbors for payments by C corporations and specified passthrough entities to section 170(c) entities. The final Regulations reflect amendments to Regulation section 1.162-15(a) to incorporate the safe harbors previously set forth in Revenue Procedure 2019-12. One safe harbor provides that C corporations that make payments to or for the use of section 170(c) charitable organizations and that receive or expect to receive corresponding tax credits against state or local taxes may treat such payments as meeting the requirements of an ordinary and necessary business expense for purposes of section 162(a).

A similar safe-harbor rule applies for entities other than C corporations but only if the entity is a “specified passthrough entity.” A specified pass-through entity for this purpose is one that meets four requirements. First, the entity must be a business entity other than a C corporation that is regarded for all federal income tax purposes as separate from its owners under Regulation section 301.7701-3 (i.e., it is not single-member LLC). Second, the entity must operate a trade or business within the meaning of section 162. Third, the entity must be subject to a state or local tax incurred in carrying on its trade or business that is imposed directly on the entity. Fourth, in return for a payment to a section 170(c) charitable organization, the entity receives or expects to receive a state or local tax credit that the entity applies or expects to apply to offset a state or local tax imposed upon the entity. The safe harbors for C corporations and specified passthrough entities apply only to payments of cash and cash equivalents. The safe harbor for specified passthrough entities does not apply if the credit received or expected to be received reduces a state or local income tax.

Two examples in the Regulations illustrate the application of these rules:

Example 1. C corporation that receives or expects to receive dollar-for-dollar State or local tax credit. A, a C corporation engaged in a trade or business, makes a payment of $1,000 to an entity described in section 170(c). In return for the payment, A expects to receive a dollar-for-dollar state tax credit to be applied to A’s state corporate income tax liability. Under paragraph (a)(3)(i) of this section, A may treat the $1,000 payment as meeting the requirements of an ordinary and necessary business expense under section 162.
Example (4). S corporation that receives or expects to receive percentage-based State or local tax credit. S is an S corporation engaged in a trade or business and is owned by individuals C and D. S makes a payment of $1,000 to an entity described in section 170(c). In return for the payment, S expects to receive a state tax credit equal to 80 percent of the amount of this payment ($800) to be applied to S’s local real property tax liability incurred by S in carrying on its trade or business. Under applicable state and local law, the real property tax is imposed at the entity level (not the owner level). Under paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section, S may treat $800 of the payment as an expense of carrying on a trade or business under section 162. The treatment of the remaining $200 will depend upon the facts and circumstances and is not affected by paragraph (a)(3)(ii) of this section.

These amendments apply to amounts paid or property transferred after December 17, 2019. Nevertheless, taxpayers can choose to apply the amendments to payments or transfers made on or after January 1, 2018.

A safe harbor for individuals who itemize deductions. The final Regulations amend Regulation section 1.164-3(j) to incorporate the safe harbor previously provided in Notice 2019-12. Under this safe harbor, an individual who itemizes deductions and who makes a payment to a section 170(c) entity in return for a state or local tax credit may treat as a payment of state or local tax for purposes of section 164 the portion of the payment for which a charitable contribution deduction under section 170 is disallowed by Regulation section 1.170A-1(h)(3). This latter Regulation generally disallows a taxpayer’s federal charitable contribution deduction to the extent the taxpayer receives a state or local tax credit in exchange for a payment to a section 170(c) entity. For example, this safe harbor would permit an individual who makes a $1,000 payment to a section 170(c) entity and who, in exchange, receives a $700 state or local tax credit to treat the $700 that is disallowed as a federal charitable contribution deduction as a payment of state or local tax that is deductible on Schedule A, subject to the $10,000 limit of section 164(b)(6).

These amendments apply to payments made on or after June 11, 2019 (the date the Service issued Notice 2019-12), but individuals can choose to apply the amendments to Regulation section 1.164-3(j) to payments made after August 27, 2018.

Amendments to clarify the effect of benefits provided to a donor that are not provided by the section 170(c) entity. The final Regulations propose amending Regulation section 1.170A-1(h)(4)(i) to provide:

A taxpayer receives goods or services in consideration for a taxpayer’s payment or transfer to an entity described in section 170(c) if, at the time the taxpayer makes the payment to such entity, the taxpayer receives or expects to receive goods or services from that entity or any other party in return.

This amendment is intended to clarify that the quid pro quo principle, under which a taxpayer’s charitable contribution deduction is disallowed to the extent the taxpayer receives goods or services in return, applies regardless of whether the goods or services are provided by the section 170(c) entity receiving the contribution. The Preamble to the Proposed Regulations discussed judicial decisions that have adopted this approach, such as Singer Co. v. United States and Wendell Falls Development, LLC v. Commissioner. The Service reached a similar result in Example 11 of Revenue Ruling 67-246, in which a taxpayer who made a $100 payment to a specific charity and, in return, received a transistor radio worth $15 from a local store could take a charitable contribution deduction of only $85. The final Regulations also amend Regulation section 1.170A-1(h)(4)(ii) to define “goods or services” for this purpose as “cash, property, services, benefits, and privileges.” These amendments apply to amounts paid or property transferred after December 17, 2019.

As a result, although the payment or transfer to a section 170(c) organization accompanied by the receipt of goods or services from a third party may not qualify for the charitable contribution deduction (and likewise will not count against the charitable contribution deduction percentage limits of section 170(b)(1) or (2)), the payment or transfer may be deductible as an ordinary and necessary business expense under section 162. This is welcome news for so-called “social enterprise” businesses that “donate” all or a large portion of their profits to charity.

g. State and local taxes imposed on and paid by a partnership or S corporation are not subject to the $10,000 state and local tax deduction limitation for partners and shareholders who itemize deductions. In Notice 2020-75, the Treasury Department and the Service announced that they will issue proposed regulations clarifying that state and local income taxes imposed on and paid by a partnership or S corporation on its income are allowed as a deduction by the partnership or S corporation in computing its nonseparately stated taxable income or loss for the taxable year of payment. Therefore, such taxes are not subject to the $10,000 state and local tax deduction limitation for partners and shareholders who itemize deductions. The proposed regulations will apply to payments of taxes made on or after November 9, 2020. The proposed regulations also will allow taxpayers to apply these rules to specified income tax payments made in a taxable year of a partnership or an S corporation ending after December 31, 2017, and before November 9, 2020.

2. Although the Service treats Medicaid waiver payments as excludable from gross income, such payments are earned income for purposes of the earned income credit and the child tax credit, says the Tax Court.

Medicaid waiver payments are payments to individual care providers for the care of eligible individuals under a state Medicaid Home and Community-Based Services waiver program described in section 1915(c) of the Social Security Act. Generally, these payments are made by a state that has obtained a Medicaid waiver that allows the state to include in the state’s Medicaid program the cost of home- or community-based services (other than room and board) provided to individuals who otherwise would require care in a hospital, nursing facility, or intermediate care facility. In Notice 2014-7, the Service concluded that Medicaid waiver payments qualify as “difficulty of care payments” within the meaning of section 131(c) and therefore can be excluded from the recipient’s gross income under section 131(a), which excludes amounts received by a foster care provider as qualified foster care payments. Generally, difficulty of care payments are compensation for providing additional care to a qualified foster individual that is required by reason of the individual’s physical, mental, or emotional handicap and that is provided in the home of the foster care provider.

In Feigh v. Commissioner, the taxpayers, a married couple, received Medicaid waiver payments in 2015 in the amount of $7,353, which were reflected on Form W-2, for the care of their disabled adult children. The taxpayers reported this amount as wages on their 2015 return but excluded the payments from gross income. They received no other income during 2015 that would qualify as earned income. The taxpayers claimed an earned income credit of $3,319 and an additional child tax credit of $653. The Service asserted that the Medicaid waiver payment was not earned income and therefore disallowed the taxpayers’ earned income credit and child tax credit.

The Tax Court (Judge Goeke) held that the Medicaid waiver payments in the amount of $7,353 did qualify as earned income for purposes of both the earned income credit and the additional child tax credit. For this purpose, section 32(c)(2)(A)(i) defines “earned income” as “wages, salaries, tips, and other employee compensation, but only if such amounts are includible in gross income for the taxable year.” The court reasoned that, even though the taxpayers did not include in gross income the Medicaid waiver payments they received, the payments were includible in gross income. The court engaged in a lengthy analysis of Notice 2014-7, in which the Service had concluded that such payments could be excluded from gross income under section 131(a), and determined that the Notice was entitled to so-called Skidmore deference, under which a government agency’s interpretation is accorded respect befitting “the thoroughness evident in its consideration, the validity of its reasoning, its consistency with earlier and later pronouncements, and all those facts which give it power to persuade, if lacking power to control.” The Tax Court concluded that Notice 2014-7 was “entitled to little, if any, deference.” In other words, the court concluded that the Service got it wrong when it determined that the taxpayers’ Medicaid waiver payments were excludable from gross income.

Based on its analysis, the court accepted the taxpayers’ argument that the Service could not reach a result contrary to the Code by reclassifying the taxpayers’ earned income as unearned for purposes of determining eligibility for the tax credits in question. The Service argued that no statutory provision demonstrated that Congress intended to allow a double benefit, that is, both an exclusion of the Medicaid waiver payment from gross income and eligibility for the earned income credit and child tax credit. The court responded: “Respondent’s argument, however, misses that he, not Congress, has provided petitioners with a double tax benefit.”

a. The Service has acquiesced in the result in Feigh and will not argue that Medicaid waiver payments that are excluded from income under Notice 2014-7 but otherwise meet the definition of earned income are not earned income for determining eligibility for the earned income credit and additional child tax credit. In Feigh v. Commissioner, the taxpayers, a married couple, received Medicaid waiver payments of $7,353, which were reflected on Form W-2, for care they provided to their disabled adult children. The taxpayers excluded the payments from their gross income pursuant to Notice 2014-7, in which the Service concluded that Medicaid waiver payments qualify as “difficulty of care payments” within the meaning of section 131(c) and therefore can be excluded from the recipient’s gross income under section 131(a), which excludes amounts received by a foster care provider as qualified foster care payments. Nevertheless, the taxpayers claimed an earned income credit (EIC) of $3,319 and an additional child tax credit (ACTC) of $653.

The Tax Court rejected the Service’s argument that the payments, which were excluded from the taxpayer’s income, did not meet the definition of earned income and that the taxpayers were therefore ineligible for the earned income credit and the additional child tax credit. The Tax Court reasoned that, even though the taxpayers did not include in gross income the Medicaid waiver payments they received, the payments were includible in gross income and, therefore, met the definition of earned income. In other words, the Tax Court disagreed with the Service’s conclusion in Notice 2014-7 that such payments are excluded from gross income. The Service has acquiesced in the result in Feigh:

Accordingly, in cases in which the Service permits taxpayers, pursuant to [Notice 2014-7], to treat qualified Medicaid waiver payments as difficulty of care payments excludable under § 131, the Service will not argue that payments that otherwise fall within the definition of earned income under § 32(c)(3) are not earned income for determining eligibility for the EIC and the ACTC merely because they are excludable under the Notice.

3. Maybe Congress really does CARE. Recovery rebates or “credits” for individuals.

Section 2201 of the CARES Act adds new section 6428, which provides for what the Treasury Department publicly refers to as “economic impact payments” and what the Code describes as an advance refund of a credit for which individuals may be eligible for 2020. Nonresident aliens, dependent children, and estates and trusts are not eligible for the credit. The Treasury Department and the Service announced on Monday, March 30, 2020, that many U.S. taxpayers will receive a distribution of funds pursuant to this statutory provision within the following three weeks. Distribution of the funds is to be automatic and, for most taxpayers who have previously filed a 2018 or 2019 tax return, there are no steps that need to be taken to receive a payment. The amount of the advance payment to which an individual is entitled is to be determined based on the individual’s 2019 federal income tax return or, if the 2019 return has not filed, the individual’s 2018 return. If an individual has filed neither a 2018 nor 2019 return, then the amount of the advance payment may be determined based on Social Security information (Form SSA-1099 or RRB-1099). In general, the advance refunds are to be received in the form of a direct deposit into taxpayers’ bank accounts. According to section 6428(f), such payments are, in effect, advance refunds of the amount to be allowed as a “recovery rebate” or tax credit on each recipient’s 2020 federal income tax return. Generally, a taxpayer who is an eligible taxpayer will be treated as having made tax payments equal to the credit to which the taxpayer is entitled. Section 2201(d) of the CARES Act provides that advance payments of the credit are not subject to the reduction or offset set forth in specified provisions. The effect of this rule is to preclude the Service from applying the advance payment of the credit to which a taxpayer is entitled to outstanding tax liabilities from other years.

Amount of the credit. According to section 6428(a), a taxpayer who filed an income tax return in 2018 or 2019 will receive an advance refund of the projected rebate or credit equal to $1,200 ($2,400 in the case of eligible individuals filing a joint return), plus an additional $500 for each qualifying child of the taxpayer if the taxpayer’s adjusted gross income (AGI) is below a certain threshold amount. A qualifying child is a child with respect to whom the taxpayer would be entitled to the child tax credit provided by section 24. Pursuant to section 24(c), this means that the child must be a qualifying child of the taxpayer (as defined in section 152(c)) who has not attained age 17. The amount of the credit is phased out based on the taxpayer’s AGI. Under section 6428(c), the amount of the projected credit (and therefore the advance refund amount sent to taxpayers) is reduced by five percent of the excess of the taxpayer’s AGI over: $150,000 (in the case of a joint return), $112,500 (in the case of a head of household), and $75,000 in all other cases. The credit is completely phased out for taxpayers with no children who have AGI of $198,000 (joint filers), $146,500 (head of household), and $99,000 (all others including single filers). According to section 6428(e)(2), with respect to joint returns, 50% of the credit is deemed to have been allowed to each spouse filing the return.

Adjusting the credit on the 2020 return. According to section 6428(a), a taxpayer who is eligible for the credit will be treated as having made an income tax payment for the 2020 taxable year in an amount equal to the amount of the credit to which he or she is entitled. An advance refund of the credit received by the taxpayer in 2020 reduces the credit to which he or she is entitled on the 2020 return. Thus, if a taxpayer’s 2019 return is filed early enough in 2020 such that the Service based the advance refund amount on the taxpayer’s 2019 reported AGI, then the payment will be refunded (i.e., “advanced”) for the first taxable year beginning in 2020 (et voilà, an advance refund electronic deposit is received by the taxpayer when most needed). However, because the advance refund amount is based upon the taxpayer’s 2019 AGI, the amount of the credit may be adjusted up based upon the taxpayer’s AGI as reported on his or her 2020 federal income tax return. Thus, for example, a taxpayer might receive an advance refund amount during 2020, based on his or her AGI as reported on a filed 2019 return, but the payment might have been partially phased out due to receiving a full year of wage income in 2019. Continuing with this example, the same taxpayer’s AGI as reported on his or her 2020 return might be much lower due to loss of pay as a result of not being able to work during the pandemic. Such a taxpayer may then be entitled to a full (as opposed to a partial) credit based on his or her lower 2020 AGI. In such a case, when the taxpayer prepares his or her 2020 tax return, the full amount of the credit would only be partially offset by the lower advance refund payment (based on 2019 AGI). This, in turn, would allow for an additional refund of the difference. If a taxpayer receives an advance refund payment in 2020 which is more than the credit calculated on the taxpayer’s 2020 tax return, there is no requirement for the taxpayer to pay back the excess advance refund.

Requirement of a Social Security Number. Section 6428(g) provides that no credit is allowed to taxpayers who do not include a “valid identification number” on the tax return for the taxpayer, the taxpayer’s spouse, and qualifying children. The term “valid identification number” is defined, by reference to section 24(h)(7), as a social security number issued before the due date of the return or an adoption taxpayer identification number in the case of a qualifying child who is adopted or placed for adoption. Thus, with respect to joint filers, both spouses must include their social security numbers on the return. However, a special rule applies to members of the armed forces under which only one spouse must include a valid social security number on the joint return.

4. Dependency defined! The Treasury Department final Regulations clarifying the definition of a “qualifying relative.”

The Treasury Department and the Service have finalized Proposed Regulations issued in 2020 that revised prior Proposed Regulations issued in January 2017 to clarify the definition of who is a “qualifying relative” for tax years 2018 through 2025. In general, taxpayers may claim an exemption deduction for the taxpayer, his or her spouse, and for any dependents (“qualifying child” or a “qualifying relative”). Importantly, to be a qualifying relative, the individual’s gross income must be less than the exemption amount in section 151(d). Before the 2017 Proposed Regulations and the enactment of the TCJA, section 151(d) provided for an inflation adjusted exemption for 2018 of $4,150. However, the TCJA added section 151(d)(5) providing that, for the years 2018–2025, the exemption amount is zero. Essentially, the TCJA suspended the personal and dependency exemption deductions. However, the reduction of the exemption amount to zero should not, and does not, impact whether a taxpayer is allowed or entitled to a deduction for purposes of any other provision of section 151(d)(5)(B). Specifically, the Conference Report that accompanied the TCJA clarifies that the reduction of the personal exemption to zero “should not alter the operation of those provisions of the Code which refer to a taxpayer allowed a deduction . . . under section 151” including the child tax credit in section 24(a). The TCJA also amended section 24 to allow for a $500 credit for qualifying relatives as defined in section 152(d). The $500 credit for qualifying relatives also applies for the years 2018 through 2025. Thus, the reduction of the exemption amount to zero during these years is not taken into account in determining whether an individual meets the definition of a qualifying relative. Newly finalized Regulation section 1.152-2(e)(3) provides:

In defining a qualifying relative for taxable year 2018, the exemption amount in section 152(d)(1)(B) is $4,150. For taxable years 2019 through 2025, the exemption amount, as adjusted for inflation, is set forth in annual guidance published in the Internal Revenue Bulletin. See § 601.601(d)(2) of this chapter.

As such, Regulation section 1.152-3(e)(1) provides for an inflation adjusted exemption amount for 2019–2025. The Treasury Department argues that this language in the newly finalized Regulation is supported by the wording of section 152(d)(1)(B). To be included in the definition of a “qualifying relative” under the wording of section 152(d)(1)(B), an individual must have gross income that is “less than the exemption amount.” If the exemption amount were zero, such an individual’s gross income would have to be less than zero. Such an interpretation would make no sense because, under such circumstances, no individual would meet the definition of a qualifying relative. The Treasury Department further supports this interpretation by concluding that Congress could not have intended to make such a significant change in such an indirect manner.

5. Standard deduction for 2021.

The standard deduction for 2021 will be $25,100 for joint returns and surviving spouses (increased from $24,800), $12,550 for unmarried individuals and married individuals filing separately (increased from $12,400), and $18,800 for heads of households (increased from $18,650). For individuals who can be claimed as dependents, the standard deduction cannot exceed the greater of $1,100 or the sum of $350 and the individual’s earned income (unchanged from 2020). The additional standard deduction amount for those who are legally blind or who are age 65 or older is $1,700 (increased from $1,650) for those with the filing status of single or head of household (and who are not surviving spouses) and is $1,350 (increased from $1,300) for married taxpayers ($2,700 on a joint return if both spouses are age 65 or older).

6. The reduction of the personal exemption deduction to zero does not affect an individual’s ability to claim the section 36B premium tax credit.

The Treasury Department and the Service have finalized, without change, Proposed Regulations that clarify that an individual’s ability to claim the premium tax credit of section 36B is not affected by Congress’s reduction of the personal exemption deduction to zero. Section 151(a) authorizes a deduction for allowable exemptions, and section 151(b)–(c) provides exemptions of the “exemption amount” for the taxpayer and each individual who is a dependent of the taxpayer as defined in section 152. In the TCJA, Congress temporarily eliminated the deduction for exemptions for the taxpayer and the taxpayer’s dependents by adding section 151(d)(5). Section 151(d)(5)(A) provides that, for the years 2018–2025, the exemption amount is zero. Nevertheless, section 151(d)(5)(B) provides that the reduction of the exemption amount to zero “shall not be taken into account in determining whether a deduction is allowed or allowable, or whether a taxpayer is entitled to a deduction, under this section.” In other words, for purposes of provisions of the Code that refer to a taxpayer being entitled to a deduction under section 151 for exemptions for the taxpayer or the taxpayer’s dependents, the fact that the exemption amount has been reduced to zero (which results in no deduction) is not taken into account. Pursuant to this authority, the final Regulations provide that the reduction of the exemption amount to zero does not affect an individual’s ability to claim the premium tax credit authorized by section 36B. As noted in the Preamble to the final Regulations, “[s]everal rules relating to the premium tax credit apply based on whether a taxpayer properly claims or claimed a personal exemption deduction under section 151 for the taxpayer, the taxpayer’s spouse, and dependents.” For example, various rules require determining the members of the taxpayer’s “family,” and Regulation section 1.36B-1(d)(1) provides that “[a] taxpayer’s family means the individuals for whom a taxpayer properly claims a deduction for a personal exemption under section 151 for the taxable year.” Among other amendments, the final Regulations add Regulation section 1.36B-1(d)(2), which provides:

For taxable years to which section 151(d)(5) applies, a taxpayer’s family means the taxpayer, including both spouses in the case of a joint return, except for individuals who qualify as a dependent of another taxpayer under section 152, and any other individual for whom the taxpayer is allowed a personal exemption deduction and whom the taxpayer properly reports on the taxpayer’s income tax return for the taxable year. For purposes of this paragraph (d)(2), an individual is reported on the taxpayer’s income tax return if the individual’s name and taxpayer identification number (TIN) are listed on the taxpayer’s Form 1040 series return. See § 601.602 of this chapter.

The final Regulations generally apply to taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2020, but taxpayers can apply the final Regulations to taxable years to which section 151(d) applies that end before that date.

7. Permanent extension of the 7.5% threshold for deduction of medical expenses.

Prior to the TCJA, medical expenses generally were deductible only to the extent they exceeded ten percent of a taxpayer’s adjusted gross income. For taxable years beginning after 2012 and ending before 2017, this threshold was reduced to 7.5% if the taxpayer or the taxpayer’s spouse had attained age 65 by the close of the year. Section 11027 of the TCJA amended section 213(f) to provide that the 7.5% threshold applies to all taxpayers for taxable years beginning after 2016 and ending before 2019 (i.e., to calendar years 2017 and 2018). Further, the legislation provided that this threshold applies for purposes of both the regular tax and the alternative minimum tax. Section 103 of the Taxpayer Certainty and Disaster Tax Relief Act of 2019 retroactively extended this reduced threshold to taxable years beginning before January 1, 2021 (i.e., to calendar years 2019 and 2020). Most recently, section 101 of the Taxpayer Certainty and Disaster Tax Relief Act of 2020 made this reduced threshold permanent for taxable years beginning after December 31, 2020.

8. Mortgage insurance premiums paid through 2021 remain deductible.

Section 133 of the Taxpayer Certainty and Disaster Tax Relief Act of 2020 extended through December 31, 2021, the section 163(h)(3)(E) deduction (subject to the pre-existing limitations) for mortgage insurance premiums paid or accrued in connection with acquisition indebtedness with respect to a qualified residence of the taxpayer. This provision had expired after 2017 and was retroactively extended by section 102 of the Taxpayer Certainty and Disaster Tax Relief Act of 2019 through December 31, 2020. The provision now applies through December 31, 2021.

9. For 2020, all individuals can use prior-year earned income to determine their earned income tax credit and child tax credit.

Section 211 of the Taxpayer Certainty and Disaster Tax Relief Act of 2020 provides that individuals can elect to use prior-year earned income for purposes of determining the individual’s earned income tax credit under section 32 and child tax credit under section 24. The election is available for individuals whose earned income for the taxpayer’s first taxable year beginning in 2020 is lower than the taxpayer’s earned income for the preceding tax year. For married couples filing a joint return, the earned income for the preceding year is the sum of the earned income in the preceding year of both spouses.

Congress previously has allowed individuals affected by certain natural disasters to use prior-year earned income in this manner. In extending this privilege to all individuals, Congress presumably recognized the widespread effect on earned income of the COVID-19 pandemic.

E. Divorce Tax Issues

There were no significant developments regarding this topic during 2020.

F. Education

1. An increase in the income threshold above which the Lifetime Learning Credit begins to phase out.

Section 104(a) the Taxpayer Certainty and Disaster Tax Relief Act of 2020 increased the income threshold above which the Lifetime Learning Credit provided by section 25A begins to phase out. The Lifetime Learning Credit is allowed for qualified tuition and related expenses for higher education of the taxpayer, the taxpayer’s spouse, or dependents. The credit is available for qualifying expenses paid to acquire or improve job skills of an individual and is thus available for education throughout one’s lifetime. In contrast, the American Opportunity Credit, also provided by section 25A, is available for qualified tuition and related expenses only for the first four years of post-secondary education. Before this legislation, the American Opportunity Credit and the Lifetime Learning Credit were subject to separate income-based phase-outs. The income threshold for the American Opportunity Credit was higher than that for the Lifetime Learning Credit. As amended, section 25A(d) now provides a single income-based phase out that applies for purposes of both credits. The effect of this change is to make the Lifetime Learning Credit available to more taxpayers. The change applies to taxable years beginning after 2020.

Under the unified income-based phase out that applies to the American Opportunity Credit and Lifetime Learning Credit, each credit is phased out to the extent that the taxpayer’s modified adjusted gross income (as defined) exceeds $80,000 ($160,000 for a married couple filing jointly). Each credit is eliminated when the taxpayer’s modified adjusted gross income reaches $90,000 ($180,000 for a married couple filing jointly). These amounts are not adjusted for inflation.

Simultaneously with the increased income threshold above which the Lifetime Learning Credit begins to phase out, Congress repealed the section 222 above-the-line deduction for qualified tuition and related expenses for tax years beginning after 2020.

2. Repeal of the deduction for paying your child’s college tuition.

Section 104(b) of the Taxpayer Certainty and Disaster Tax Relief Act of 2020 repealed the section 222 above-the-line deduction for individuals of a limited amount ($0, $2,000, or $4,000, depending on the taxpayer’s adjusted gross income) of qualified tuition and related expenses for higher education of the taxpayer, the taxpayer’s spouse, or dependents. The repeal is effective for tax years beginning after 2020. Simultaneously with the repeal, Congress amended section 25A to increase the income threshold above which the section 25A Lifetime Learning Credit begins to phase out. The Lifetime Learning Credit, like the section 222 deduction, is allowed for qualified tuition and related expenses and will now be available to more taxpayers.

Previously, section 104 of the Taxpayer Certainty and Disaster Tax Relief Act of 2019 had retroactively extended the section 222 deduction through December 31, 2020. With this retroactive extension, the deduction is available for calendar years 2018, 2019, and 2020.

3. Want to get rid of that student loan? Get the boss to pay it tax-free!

Generally, section 127(a) excludes from the gross income of an employee up to $5,250 of employer-provided “educational assistance” as defined in section 127(c). Section 2206 of the CARES Act amended section 127(c)(1) by redesignating subparagraph (B) as subparagraph (C) and adding a new subparagraph (B) that temporarily expands the definition of “educational assistance.” Section 127(c)(1)(B) provides that the term “educational assistance” within the meaning of section 127(c)(1) includes repayments of “qualified education loans” by an employer whether paid to the employee or to the lender. Section 127(c)(1)(B), as added by the CARES Act, applies to payments made after March 27, 2020, (the date of enactment of the CARES Act) and before January 1, 2021. Section 120(b) of the Taxpayer Certainty and Disaster Tax Relief Act of 2020 extends the provision to payments made before January 1, 2026.

G. Alternative Minimum Tax

There were no significant developments regarding this topic during 2020.

VI. Corporations

A. Entity and Formation

There were no significant developments regarding this topic during 2020.

B. Distributions and Redemptions

There were no significant developments regarding this topic during 2020.

C. Liquidations

There were no significant developments regarding this topic during 2020.

D. S Corporations

1. If you’re a cash-method S corp pining to be a C corp, here’s your chance!

Section 13543 of the TCJA added new section 481(d) and new section 1371(f) to make it easier for cash-method S corporations to convert to C corporations (which typically, but not always, especially after TCJA’s revisions to section 448, are accrual-method taxpayers). Specifically, new section 481(d) provides that any adjustment (such as changing from the cash to the accrual method) otherwise required under section 481(a)(2) with respect to an S to C conversion may be taken into account ratably over six years starting with the year of the change (instead of taking into account the adjustment entirely in the year of change) if the following three conditions are met: (1) the converting S corporation existed prior to December 22, 2017 (the date of TCJA’s enactment); (2) the conversion from S to C status takes place prior to December 22, 2019 (two years from the date of TCJA’s enactment); and (3) all of the shareholders of the S corporation on December 22, 2017, are “in identical proportions” to the shareholders of the C corporation. A Subchapter C corporation that meets these requirements is referred to in section 481(d)(2) as an “eligible terminated S corporation.”

New section 1371(f) further provides that “money” distributed by any above-described converted S corporation after the “post-termination transition period” (generally one year) is allocable to and chargeable against the former S corporation’s AAA in the same ratio as AAA bears to accumulated E&P. Thus, new section 1371(f) is more favorable to S corporations converting to C status than the normal rule of section 1371(e), which allows distributions of money during the “post-termination transition period,” but not after, to be allocable to and chargeable against AAA. As a practical matter, then, S corporations converting to C corporations within the confines of new section 481(d) and section 1371(f) may make nontaxable, stock-basis reducing distributions of money out of their AAA during the one-year period following the conversion (pursuant to section 1371(e)) as well as wholly or partially (depending upon AAA as compared to E&P) nontaxable, basis-reducing distributions of money after the normal one-year, post-termination transition period. These changes to section 481 and section 1371 are permanent but, of course, will apply only to S to C conversions that meet the criteria of section 481(d) (i.e., pre-TCJA existing S corporations that convert to C status before December 22, 2019, and that have the same shareholders in the same proportions post-conversion).

a. Guidance concerning the adjustments required under new section 481(d). Revenue Procedure 2018-44 modifies Revenue Procedure 2018-31 to provide that an “eligible terminated S corporation,” as defined in section 481(d)(2), required to change from the overall cash method of accounting to an overall accrual method of accounting as a result of a revocation of its S corporation election, and that makes this change in method of accounting for the C corporation’s first taxable year after such revocation, is required to take into account the resulting positive or negative adjustment required by section 481(a)(2) ratably during the six-year period beginning with the year of change. Revenue Procedure 2018-44 also provides that an eligible terminated S corporation permitted to continue to use the cash method after the revocation of its S corporation election, and that changes to an overall accrual method for the C corporation’s first taxable year after such revocation, may take into account the resulting positive or negative adjustment required by section 481(a)(2) ratably during the six-year period beginning with the year of change.

b. Final Regulations for eligible terminated S corporations “ETSCs.” The Treasury Department and the Service have finalized Proposed Regulations that provide guidance on the definition of an eligible terminated S corporation in section 481(d)(2) and rules relating to distributions of money by such a corporation after the post-termination transition period. As noted above, one of the requirements for “eligible terminated S corporation” status is conversion to C corporation status before December 22, 2019. For those S corporations that met the deadline and otherwise satisfied the above-mentioned requirements of section 481(d)—and who consequently have earned the new moniker “ETSCs”—the Treasury Department has issued further guidance in the form of final Regulations. Generally, the final Regulations provide rules regarding (1) the definition of an ETSC; (2) distributions of money by an ETSC after the post-termination transition period; and (3) the allocation of current C corporation E&P to distributions of money and other property to the shareholders of ETSCs. The final Regulations apply to tax years beginning after October 20, 2020, but corporations can choose to apply Regulation sections 1.481-5, 1.1371-1, and 1.1371-2 in their entirety to tax years beginning on or before that date. We commend these Regulations to further study by those tax advisors with affected clients.

2. Kentucky nonstock, nonprofit corporation may not elect S corporation status and president of the corporation may not deduct the corporation’s losses.

Deckard v. Commissioner presents two issues. First, whether a Kentucky nonstock, nonprofit corporation validly elected S corporation status, and second, whether the taxpayer, Mr. Deckard, was a shareholder of the corporation during the years in question. The Tax Court (Judge Thornton) agreed with the Service regarding the second issue and held that Mr. Deckard was not a shareholder of the corporation for purposes of Subchapter S. Because he was not a shareholder, he was not entitled to deduct the corporation’s losses on his individual income tax returns. The court, therefore, did not address the first issue (i.e., whether the corporation had made a valid Subchapter S election).

Waterfront Fashion Week, Inc. (Waterfront) was formed as a Kentucky nonstock, nonprofit corporation. Its purpose was initially intended to be charitable with its primary mission to raise money for, among other things, conservation and maintenance of Waterfront Park in Louisville, Kentucky. In 2012, Waterfront produced an event at the park that resulted in financial losses. After being administratively dissolved in 2013, reformed, and dissolved again in 2014 by the Kentucky Secretary of State, Mr. Deckard, in his capacity as Waterfront’s president, attempted to file an election with the Service to treat Waterfront as an S corporation. In 2015, Mr. Deckard filed late returns on Form 1120S for 2012 and 2013 for Waterfront as well as late income tax returns on Form 1040 for himself for the same years. On his own individual income tax returns, Mr. Deckard reported substantial losses from Waterfront.

Judge Thornton declined to accept Mr. Deckard’s argument that Waterfront was an S corporation for federal income tax purposes and that he was a shareholder of Waterfront. Initially, the court addressed whether Mr. Deckard was a shareholder. Although courts have frequently considered whether a person is a shareholder by virtue of being a beneficial owner of the corporation’s stock, Judge Thornton noted that neither party cited any authority nor the court could not find any authority regarding beneficial ownership of a nonstock, nonprofit corporation for purposes of Subchapter S. The court reasoned that nonprofit corporations generally do not have owners and, consequently, a passthrough system of taxation cannot be used to report income tax for such entities. Nonprofit corporations do not have owners because the members are prohibited from receiving the profits or assets of a nonprofit for their own benefit. The Kentucky statutes that govern the formation of nonstock, nonprofit corporations reflect this prohibition by defining a “nonprofit corporation” as a corporation that may not distribute any part of its profit to its members, directors, or officers. Such nonprofits are also not allowed to have or issue any shares of stock. Judge Thornton concluded that Waterfront, as a Kentucky nonstock, nonprofit corporation, had no stock and could not issue any stock. Accordingly, the court concluded that Mr. Deckard could not be a shareholder of Waterfront within the meaning of Regulation section 1.1361-1(e)(1), which provides that “[o]rdinarily, the person who would have to include in gross income dividends distributed with respect to the stock of the corporation (if the corporation were a C corporation) is considered to be the shareholder of the corporation.”

Judge Thornton also declined to adopt any of a number of other arguments made by Mr. Deckard. That is, the court rejected Mr. Deckard’s argument that he had intended to form a for-profit corporation and had operated Waterfront as a for-profit corporation and, therefore, the court should treat Waterfront as a for-profit corporation under the substance-over-form doctrine. The court reasoned that taxpayers are generally bound by the form they choose and that Mr. Deckard had purposefully organized Waterfront as a nonprofit corporation. The court also rejected Mr. Deckard’s argument that, because Waterfront had never applied for or obtained tax-exempt status, it must be treated as a for-profit corporation. This argument, the court observed, confuses federal tax-exempt status with status as a nonprofit corporation under state law.

In summary, the court concluded that Mr. Deckard was not a shareholder of Waterfront during any of the years at issue and was therefore not entitled to deduct the corporation’s losses on his individual federal income tax returns. The court, therefore, did not have to decide (and indeed expressly declined to decide) whether the Tax Court would have jurisdiction in a case such as this, brought by an individual who was not a shareholder of the putative S corporation, to determine whether Waterfront made a valid S corporation election.

E. Mergers, Acquisitions, and Reorganizations

1. Proposed Regulations address the items of income and deduction that are included in the calculation of built-in gains and built-in losses under section 382(h).

In an effort to minimize tax-motivated, tax-free acquisitions, Congress has enacted various provisions that limit an acquiring corporation’s ability to make use of an acquired corporation’s tax attributes, such as its net operating losses (NOLs) and tax credits. One such provision, section 382, in very simplified terms, limits an acquiring corporation’s ability to use an acquired corporation’s preacquisition NOLs. Somewhat more accurately, section 382 limits the ability of a “loss corporation” to offset its taxable income in periods subsequent to an “ownership change” with losses attributable to periods prior to that ownership change. The section 382 limitation imposed on a loss corporation’s use of pre-change losses for each year subsequent to an ownership change generally is equal to the fair market value of the loss corporation immediately before the ownership change, multiplied by the applicable long-term tax-exempt rate as defined in section 382(f).

A loss corporation’s built-in gains and built-in losses affect its section 382 limitation. Section 382(h) provides rules relating to the determination of a loss corporation’s built-in gains and losses as of the date of the ownership change. Generally, built-in gains recognized during the five-year period beginning on the date of the ownership change allow a loss corporation to increase its section 382 limitation, and built-in losses recognized during this same period are subject to the loss corporation’s section 382 limitation. New Proposed Regulations address the items of income and deduction that are included in the calculation of built-in gains and losses under section 382 and reflect numerous changes made by the TCJA, which generated significant uncertainty regarding the application of section 382. The Preamble to the Proposed Regulations indicates that the Treasury Department and the Service propose to withdraw the following Service notices and incorporate their subject matter into the Proposed Regulations: Notice 87-79, Notice 90-27, Notice 2003-65, and Notice 2018-30. The proposed withdrawal of the prior Service notices would be effective on the day after the Proposed Regulations are published as final Regulations in the Federal Register.

The Proposed Regulations generally would be effective for ownership changes occurring after the date on which they are published as final Regulations in the Federal Register. However, taxpayers and their related parties (within the meaning of sections 267(b) and 707(b)(1)) may apply the Proposed Regulations to any ownership change occurring during a taxable year with respect to which the period described in section 6511(a) (the limitations period on refund claims) has not expired, as long as the taxpayers and all of their related parties consistently apply the rules of the Proposed Regulations to such ownership change and all subsequent ownership changes that occur before the effective date of final Regulations.

a. In response to taxpayer concerns regarding the effective date of the Proposed Regulations on the calculation of built-in gains and built-in losses under section 382(h), the Treasury Department and the Service have provided a delayed effective date and transition relief for eligible taxpayers. The Preamble to the Proposed Regulations published in the Federal Register on September 10, 2019 (2019 Proposed Regulations) indicates that the Treasury Department and the Service propose to withdraw certain Service notices, including Notice 2003-65 and that the withdrawal would be effective on the day after the Proposed Regulations are published as final Regulations in the Federal Register. The 2019 Proposed Regulations further provide that they generally would be effective for ownership changes occurring after the date on which they are published as final Regulations in the Federal Register. Section V of Notice 2003-65 provides that taxpayers may rely on either of two safe-harbor approaches for applying section 382(h) to an ownership change “prior to the effective date of temporary or final regulations under section 382(h).” Taxpayers and practitioners expressed two concerns regarding these effective dates: (1) they would impose a significant burden on taxpayers who are evaluating and negotiating business transactions because of uncertainty regarding both when the transactions will close and the date on which the final regulations will be published and (2) as stated in the Preamble, “transition relief limited to transactions for which a binding agreement is in effect on or before the applicability date of final regulations would be inadequate, because pending transactions regularly are modified or delayed prior to closing.”

In response to these concerns, the Treasury Department and the Service have withdrawn the text of Proposed Regulation sections 1.382-2(b)(4) and 1.382-7(g) contained in the 2019 Proposed Regulations and have proposed revised effective dates. Revised Proposed Regulation section 1.382-2(b)(4) provides that the Proposed Regulations apply to any ownership change that occurs after the date that is 30 days after the date on which final Regulations are published in the Federal Register with the exception that, according to the Preamble, the Treasury Department and the Service expect that Proposed Regulation section 1.382-7(d)(5) will be made final before other portions of the 2019 Proposed Regulations as part of the Treasury Decision that finalizes the Proposed Regulations issued under section 163(j). Revised Proposed Regulation section 1.382-7(d)(5) provides that certain carryforwards of business interest expense disallowed under section 163(j) are not treated as recognized built-in losses under section 382(h)(6)(B) if they were allowable as deductions during a specified five-year recognition period with the exception, set forth in Proposed Regulation section 1.382-7(g)(2), that the final Regulations would not apply to certain ownership changes that occur after the generally applicable effective date (30 days after the date on which final Regulations are published in the Federal Register) if the ownership change occurs in one of five specified circumstances. For transactions to which the final Regulations do not apply (because of either the 30-day delayed effective date or the transition relief for ownership changes occurring after the delayed effective date), Notice 2003-65, including its safe harbors, would remain applicable. For ownership changes that occur after the delayed effective date and to which the final Regulations would not apply pursuant to the transition relief, taxpayers can elect to instead apply the final Regulations.

F. Corporate Division

There were no significant developments regarding this topic during 2020.

G. Affiliated Corporations and Consolidated Returns

1. State law, not federal common law, must determine whether a refund with respect to a consolidated return belongs to the group’s common parent or instead to the subsidiary member whose loss produced the refund, says the U.S. Supreme Court.

In Rodriguez v. FDIC, United Western Bancorp, Inc. (Holding Company) was the common parent of a consolidated group. One member of the consolidated group was a wholly-owned subsidiary, United Western Bank (Bank). The Holding Company received a refund of $4.8 million that was produced by carrying back a 2010 consolidated NOL (produced by the Bank’s loss) to 2008, a year in which the consolidated group had paid tax on income of the Bank. Thus, the refund resulted from revenue generated by the Bank in 2008 and a loss incurred by the Bank in 2010. In the same year that the 2010 consolidated return was filed, the Bank was placed into receivership with the FDIC as its receiver. Subsequently, the Holding Company became a debtor in a Chapter 7 bankruptcy proceeding. The bankruptcy trustee asserted that the refund was an asset of the bankruptcy estate, and the FDIC asserted that the refund was an asset of the Bank.

The Tenth Circuit’s Analysis. The Court of Appeals for the Tenth Circuit held that the Bank was entitled to the refund. The court noted that, in Barnes v. Harris, the Tenth Circuit, relying on the decision of the Ninth Circuit in In re Bob Richards Chrysler-Plymouth Corp., had held as a matter of federal common law that, in the absence of a contrary agreement, “a tax refund due from a joint return generally belongs to the company responsible for the losses that form the basis of the refund.” In this case, however, the consolidated group members had entered into a tax allocation agreement. The Tenth Circuit ultimately framed the issue as whether, under the tax allocation agreement, the Holding Company was acting as the agent of the Bank or instead had a standard commercial relationship with the Bank. If the former, then the Holding Company was acting as a fiduciary of the Bank and the refund would belong to the Bank; if the latter, then the Bank was a creditor of the Holding Company and the refund would be an asset of the Holding Company’s bankruptcy estate. The court concluded that the tax allocation agreement was ambiguous on this point, which triggered a provision in the agreement that required any ambiguity in the agreement to be resolved in favor of the Bank. Accordingly, the court concluded that, under the tax allocation agreement, the Holding Company was acting as the agent of the Bank; the agreement therefore did not unambiguously depart from the rule of Barnes and Bob Richards, which meant that the refund belonged to the Bank, the corporation whose losses had produced the refund. The refund was therefore not part of the Holding Company’s bankruptcy estate.

The Supreme Court’s Reversal and Remand. In a unanimous opinion by Justice Gorsuch, the Supreme Court reversed and remanded the case to the Tenth Circuit. The Bob Richards rule for determining ownership of a tax refund in the context of a consolidated return is a rule of federal common law. But the areas in which federal courts may apply federal common law, the Supreme Court observed, are limited and strict conditions must be satisfied before federal courts may do so. One of those conditions, according to the Court’s prior decisions, is that, “[i]n the absence of congressional authorization, common lawmaking must be ‘necessary to protect uniquely federal interests.’” That condition, the Court held, is not satisfied in this case. The federal government has no unique interest in how a tax refund is allocated among consolidated group members. In other words, according to the Court, the rule of Bob Richards is not a legitimate exercise of federal common lawmaking. The Court held that the issue of ownership of a tax refund in the context of a consolidated corporate group is not governed by federal common law but instead by state law, which “is well equipped to handle disputes involving corporate property rights.” Because the Tenth Circuit had incorrectly applied federal common law rather than state law, the Court remanded to the Tenth Circuit for further consideration.

a. On remand from the Supreme Court, the Tenth Circuit has concluded that, under Colorado law, the consolidated group’s refund belonged to the subsidiary member of the group whose income and loss produced it. On remand from the Supreme Court, in an opinion by Judge Briscoe, the Court of Appeals for the Tenth Circuit applied Colorado law to determine ownership of the consolidated group’s $4.8 million tax refund. The refund has been produced by carrying back a 2010 consolidated NOL of the Bank, a subsidiary group member, to 2008, a year in which the consolidated group had paid tax on income of the Bank. The court adhered to its earlier analysis that the group’s tax allocation agreement was ambiguous on the nature of the relationship between Holding Company, the group’s common parent, and the Bank. This ambiguity, according to the court, triggered a provision in the agreement that required any ambiguity in the agreement to be resolved in favor of the Bank. Accordingly, the Tenth Circuit concluded, under the tax allocation agreement, the Holding Company was acting as the agent of the Bank when the Holding Company received the refund, which meant that the refund belonged to the Bank. The refund was therefore not part of the Holding Company’s bankruptcy estate.

H. Miscellaneous Corporate Issues

1. Cash grants from the State of New Jersey were nontaxable contributions to capital, says the Tax Court.

The taxpayer in BrokerTec Holdings, Inc. v. Commissioner was the common parent of a consolidated corporate group. Two members of the group were inter-dealer brokers with offices in or near the World Trade Center in New York City on September 11, 2001. Following the destruction of the World Trade Center in the September 11 terrorist attack, these members searched for new office space. They both applied for and received cash grants from the State of New Jersey’s Economic Development Plan. Both members relocated to areas of New Jersey adjacent to New York City. On the consolidated group’s returns for 2010 through 2013, a total of approximately $55.7 million of the cash grants were treated as nontaxable, nonshareholder contributions to capital under section 118. The Service asserted that the group was required to include the grants in gross income.

The Tax Court (Judge Jacobs) held that the grants were nontaxable contributions to capital. The court engaged in a lengthy review of prior cases that had addressed the issue of what constitutes a contribution to capital, including the Supreme Court’s decision in Brown Shoe Co., Inc. v. Commissioner and the Third Circuit’s decision in Commissioner v. McKay Products Corp. Based on this review, the court concluded that “the key to determining whether payments from a nonshareholder (here, the State of New Jersey) are taxable to the recipient (here, petitioner’s affiliates) or nontaxable as a contribution to capital is the intent or motive of the nonshareholder donor.” In this case, the court concluded, the intent of the State of New Jersey in making the grants was not to pay for services, but rather to induce the consolidated group members to establish their offices in a targeted area (known as an urban-aid municipality) both to bring in new jobs and to revitalize the area. “The facts in this case fall squarely within the four corners of section 1.118-1, Income Tax Regs., and are strikingly similar to those of Brown Shoe Co. and McKay Prods. Corp. . . . .” Accordingly, the court held, the grants were nontaxable, nonshareholder contributions to capital.

Any appeal of the Tax Court’s decision by the government will be heard by the Court of Appeals for the Third Circuit, the same court that issued the opinion in McKay Products Corp.

a. To be a nontaxable contribution to capital, the contributions must become a permanent part of the recipient’s capital structure, says the Third Circuit. The Tax Court’s decision is reversed. In an opinion by Judge Ambro, the Court of Appeals for the Third Circuit reversed the Tax Court’s decision and held that the $55.7 million of cash grants received by two members of the consolidated group of which the taxpayer was the common parent from the State of New Jersey’s Economic Development Plan were not nontaxable, nonshareholder contributions to capital under section 118. Instead, the court held, the members receiving the payments had to include them in gross income. According to the Third Circuit, the Tax Court’s finding that the grants were contributions to capital “was predicated on a misunderstanding of Internal Revenue Code § 118 as well as the Treasury Regulation and cases interpreting the statutory provision.” In the Third Circuit’s view, the fact that a governmental entity provides the grant as an inducement for the corporation to relocate is not, by itself, enough to establish that the transferor’s intent is to make a contribution to the corporation’s capital. The court relied on the Supreme Court’s decision in United States v. Chicago, Burlington, and Quincy Railroad Company, which established five characteristics of a nonshareholder contribution to capital. The first four of these characteristics have been interpreted by some courts to be requirements that all must be satisfied for a payment to constitute a contribution to capital. The government argued that the first two characteristics were not present. These are (1) the payment must become a permanent part of the recipient’s working capital structure and (2) the payment must not be compensation for services provided by the recipient. The Third Circuit declined to address whether the second characteristic was present and instead held that the cash grants received in this case did not satisfy the first characteristic. This characteristic is not present, the court held, when, as here, the cash grants are provided without any restriction on their use.

The court reviewed a line of cases beginning with Edwards v. Cuba Railroad Company, and including both Brown Shoe Company v. Commissioner, and its own decision in Commissioner v. McKay Products Corporation. Based on this review, the Third Circuit concluded that a payment becomes a permanent part of the recipient’s working capital structure only when the payment is “in some way . . . designated for use as capital—whether by an explicit restriction on the use of the funds, or by tying the amount of funds to the amount of a capital investment required of the company. Otherwise, the government payments are merely intended as supplements to income.” In this case, the court observed, the cash grants were unrestricted. The corporations receiving the grants were free to use the funds to pay operating expenses, such as wages, or to pay dividends, and the amounts of the grants were calculated based on the amount of wages paid to employees rather than on the amount of capital investments to be made. The court declined to remand the case to the Tax Court for application of the correct legal standard because “the record [here] permits only one resolution: New Jersey’s Incentive Program grants to BrokerTec were intended as a supplement to its income rather than as a contribution to its capital.” Accordingly, the court held, the corporations receiving the grants had to include them in gross income.

Section 13312 of the TCJA amended section 118 effective after December 22, 2017, such that nonshareholder contributions to the capital of corporations made by governmental entities or civic groups are no longer excludable from the recipient corporation’s gross income. Accordingly, the result in this case would have been the same (but for a different reason) if the years involved had been subject to amended section 118.

VII. Partnerships

A. Formation and Taxable Years

There were no significant developments regarding this topic during 2020.

B. Allocations of Distributive Share, Partnership Debt, and Outside Basis

1. ♫♪You got to know when to hold ’em, know when to fold ’em, know when to walk away, and know when to run . . . . ♫♪ Carried (a/k/a profits) interests still qualify for preferential long-term capital gain rates, but the holding period is three years for specified interests in hedge funds and other investment partnerships.

Section 13309 of the TCJA created new section 1061 and redesignated pre-TCJA section 1061 as section 1062. New section 1061 was Congress’s lame attempt to close the carried interest (a/k/a profits interest) “loophole,” under which managers of real estate, hedge fund, and other investment partnerships were taxed at preferential long-term capital gain rates (e.g., 20%) on their distributive shares of partnership income notwithstanding the fact that they received their interests in these partnerships as part of their compensation for services rendered (which would otherwise be taxed at ordinary income rates). Essentially, section 1061 imposes a three-year holding period requirement before allocations of income or gain (including gain on disposition of an interest) with respect to an “applicable partnership interest” qualify for preferential long-term capital gain rates. An “applicable partnership interest” is one that is transferred to a taxpayer in connection with the performance of substantial services by the taxpayer, or any other related person, in any “applicable trade or business.” An “applicable trade or business” means any activity conducted on a regular, continuous, and substantial basis which, regardless of whether the activity is conducted in one or more entities, consists, in whole or in part, of “raising or returning capital,” and either “investing in (or disposing of) specified assets (or identifying specified assets for such investing or disposition),” or “developing specified assets.” Specified assets for this purpose generally are defined as securities, commodities, real estate held for rental or investment, cash or cash equivalents, options or derivative contracts with respect to any of the foregoing, and (big furrowed brow here) “an interest in a partnership to the extent of the partnership’s proportionate interest in any of the foregoing” (e.g., tiered partnerships).

There are significant exceptions, though, for (1) employees of another entity holding interests in a partnership that only performs services for that other entity and (2) partnership interests acquired for invested capital (including via a section 83(b) election for a capital interest in a partnership).

a. Thirty-four new defined terms created under the final Regulations. Recently issued final Regulations clarify the application of section 1061 and answer several questions that had been raised by tax advisors and commentators; however, the Regulations do so by creating no less than 34 defined terms. These defined terms are too numerous and intertwined to summarize here. Suffice it to say for our purposes that new section 1061 works by transmuting (1) otherwise net long-term capital gain (as defined in section 1222) attributable to an “applicable partnership interest” (i.e., all of a taxpayer’s net long-term capital gain as normally calculated) into short-term capital gain but (2) only to the extent such gain exceeds net long-term capital gain (as defined in section 1222) attributable to the disposition of partnership property (or a partnership interest) held by the partnership (or by the partner) for three years or more (i.e., net long-term gain that is excluded from transmutation under section 1061). The Regulations define the above-described excess attributable to an applicable partnership interest (API) as the “recharacterization amount.” Short- and long-term capital gains (or losses) attributable to an API (API Gains and Losses) are determined at the partnership (or partner) level under section 1222 by reference to the disposition of a “capital asset” as defined in section 1221. Importantly, the Regulations impose new reporting rules for APIs that take effect for taxable years beginning on or after January 19, 2021.

(i) Section 1231 quasi-capital gains escape new section 1061. Recall that section 1221 excludes section 1231 assets from the definition of “capital assets.” Thus, one question raised by tax advisors and commentators was whether API Gains and Losses subject to recharacterization under section 1061 would include section 1231 quasi-capital gains attributable to an API. The preamble to the final Regulations answers this question in the negative, stating “API Gains and Losses do not include long-term capital gain determined under sections 1231 and 1256 [contracts marked to market], qualified dividends described in section 1(h)(11)(B), and any other capital gain that is characterized as long-term or short-term without regard to the holding period rules in section 1222.” Of course, this considerably reduces the impact of new section 1061, especially with respect to real estate investment partnerships.

(ii) Treasury and the Service double down on the position that the term “corporation” in section 1061 does not include S corporations. Under new section 1061(c)(4)(A), an interest in a partnership is not an API if it is held “directly or indirectly . . . by a corporation.” This exception makes sense in the context of C corporations (which do not qualify for the capital gains preference), but if the exception includes S corporations, Congress created a major loophole in section 1061. In other words, an easy way to avoid new section 1061 would be to form an S corporation to hold a taxpayer’s APIs. In Notice 2018-18, however, the Treasury Department and the Service announced that regulations under section 1061 “will provide that the term ‘corporation’ for purposes of section 1061(c)(4)(A) does not include an S corporation.” Sure enough, the final Regulations provide that an API is subject to new section 1061 if it is held by an “Owner Taxpayer” (the person subject to federal income taxation) or a “Passthrough Entity” (which has the usual meaning, but expressly includes S corporations). The Preamble to the final Regulations notes that one commentator argued that interpreting the term “corporations” to exclude S corporations “is subject to substantial doubt and contrary to the plain text of the statute.” Another commentator suggested that a legislative clarification should be enacted by Congress before the Treasury Department and the Service take this position. Who’s right? Stay tuned. This issue is almost certain to be litigated.

(iii) Who cares? Although it cannot be ignored by partnerships issuing carried (a/k/a profits) interests, the practical effect of new section 1061 appears minimal. The provision likely will catch only those rare taxpayers who either (1) fail to hold their carried interests for more than three years or (2) lack the sophisticated advice to plan around the statute. One commentator characterizes the new statute as a “joke” given that most managers of real estate, hedge funds, and investment partnerships hold their carried interests for well over three years.

C. Distributions and Transactions Between the Partnership and Partners

There were no significant developments regarding this topic during 2020.

D. Sales of Partnership Interests, Liquidations and Mergers

There were no significant developments regarding this topic during 2020.

E. Inside Basis Adjustments

There were no significant developments regarding this topic during 2020.

F. Partnership Audit Rules

There were no significant developments regarding this topic during 2020.

G. Miscellaneous

1. Relief for not reporting negative tax capital accounts.

The updated 2018 Instructions for Form 1065 and accompanying Schedule K-1 now require a partnership that does not report tax basis capital accounts to its partners to report, on line 20 of Schedule K-1 (Form 1065) using code AH, the amount of a partner’s tax basis capital at both the beginning and the end of the year if either amount is negative. The Service has provided limited relief in the Notice for some taxpayers and their advisors that may not have been prepared to comply with this new requirement for 2018 returns. Specifically, the Service will waive penalties under (1) section 6722 for failure to furnish a partner a Schedule K-1 (Form 1065) and section 6698 for failure to file a Schedule K-1 (Form 1065) with a partnership return; (2) section 6038 for failure to furnish a Schedule K-1 (Form 8865); and (3) any other section for failure to file or furnish a Schedule K-1 or any other form or statement, for any penalty that arises solely as a result of failing to include negative tax basis capital account information provided the following conditions are met:

  1. The Schedule K-1 or other applicable form or statement is timely filed, including extensions, with the IRS; is timely furnished to the appropriate partner, if applicable; and contains all other required information.
  2. The person or partnership required to file the Schedule K-1 or other applicable form or statement files with the IRS, no later than one year after the original, unextended due date of the form to which the Schedule K-1 or other applicable form or statement must be attached, a schedule setting forth, for each partner for which negative tax basis capital account information is required:

a. the partnership’s name and Employer Identification Number, if any, and Reference ID Number, if any;

b. the partner’s name, address, and taxpayer identification number; and

c. the amount of the partner’s tax basis capital account at the beginning and end of the tax year at issue.

The above-described supplemental schedule should be captioned “Filed Under Notice 2019-20” and filed in accordance with instructions and additional guidance posted by the Service on IRS.gov. The due date for this supplemental schedule is determined without consideration of any extensions, automatic or otherwise, that may apply to the due date for the form itself. Furthermore, the schedule should be sent to the address listed in the Notice, and the penalty relief applies only for taxable years beginning after December 31, 2017, but before January 1, 2019.

a. The Service has issued FAQ guidance on negative tax basis capital account reporting. The Service has issued guidance on the requirement to report negative tax basis capital account information in the form of frequently asked questions (FAQs) on its website.

(i) Definition and calculation of tax basis capital accounts. In the FAQs, the Service explains that “[a] partner’s tax basis capital account (sometimes referred to simply as ‘tax capital’) represents its equity as calculated using tax principles, not based on GAAP, § 704(b), or other principles.” The FAQs then provide guidance on the calculation of a partner’s tax basis capital account. A partner’s tax basis capital account is increased by the amount of money and the adjusted basis of any property contributed by the partner to the partnership (less any liabilities assumed by the partnership or to which the property is subject) and is decreased by the amount of money and the adjusted basis of any property distributed by the partnership to the partner (less any liabilities assumed by the partner or to which the property is subject). The partner’s tax basis capital account is increased by certain items, such as the partner’s distributive share of partnership income and gain, and is decreased by certain items, such as the partner’s distributive share of partnership losses and deductions. The FAQs make clear that a partner’s tax basis capital account is not the same as a partner’s basis in the partnership interest (outside basis) because outside basis includes the partner’s share of partnership liabilities, whereas a partner’s tax basis capital account does not.

(ii) Effect of section 754 elections and revaluations of partnership property. If a partnership has a section 754 election in effect, then it increases or decreases the adjusted basis of partnership property pursuant to section 743(b) when there is a transfer of a partnership interest, or pursuant to section 734(b) when there is a distribution by the partnership. These adjustments can also be triggered when the partnership does not have a section 754 election in effect but has a substantial built-in loss and a transfer of a partnership interest occurs (section 743(b) basis adjustment) or experiences a substantial basis reduction in connection with a distribution (section 734(b) basis adjustment). The FAQs clarify that a partner’s tax basis capital account is increased or decreased by a partner’s share of basis adjustments under section 743(b) and section 734(b). In contrast, according to the FAQs, revaluations of partnership property pursuant to section 704 (such as upon the entry of a new partner) do not affect the tax basis of partnership property or a partner’s tax basis capital account.

(iii) Examples. The FAQs provide the following examples of the calculation of a partner’s tax basis capital account:

Example 1: A contributes $100 in cash and B contributes unencumbered, nondepreciable property with a fair market value (FMV) of $100 and an adjusted tax basis of $30 to newly formed Partnership AB. A’s initial tax basis capital account is $100 and B’s initial tax basis capital account is $30.
Example 2: The facts are the same as in Example 1, except B contributes nondepreciable property with a FMV of $100, an adjusted tax basis of $30, and subject to a liability of $20. B’s initial tax basis capital account is $10 ($30 adjusted tax basis of property contributed, less the $20 liability to which the property was subject).
Example 3: The facts are the same as in Example 1, except in Year 1, the partnership earns $100 of taxable income and $50 of tax-exempt income. A and B are each allocated $50 of the taxable income and $25 of the tax-exempt income by the partnership. At the end of Year 1, A’s tax basis capital account is increased by $75, to $175, and B’s tax basis capital account is increased by $75, to $105.
Example 4: The facts are the same as in Example 3. Additionally, in Year 2, the partnership has $30 of taxable loss and $20 of expenditures which are not deductible in computing partnership taxable income and which are not capital expenditures. A and B are each allocated $15 of the taxable loss and $10 of the expenditures which are not deductible in computing partnership taxable income and which are not capital expenditures. At the end of Year 2, A’s tax basis capital account is decreased by $25, to $150, and B’s tax basis capital account is decreased by $25, to $80.
Example [5]: On January 1, 2019, A and B each contribute $100 in cash to a newly formed partnership. On the same day, the partnership borrows $800 and purchases Asset X, qualified property for purposes of §168(k), for $1,000. Assume that the partnership properly allocates the $800 liability equally to A and B under § 752. Immediately after the partnership acquires Asset X, both A and B have tax basis capital accounts of $100 and outside bases of $500 ($100 cash contributed, plus $400 share of partnership liabilities under § 752). In 2019, the partnership recognizes $1,000 of tax depreciation under § 168(k) with respect to Asset X; the partnership allocates $500 of the tax depreciation to A and $500 of the tax depreciation to B. On December 31, 2019, A and B both have tax basis capital accounts of negative $400 ($100 cash contributed, less $500 share of tax depreciation) and outside bases of zero ($100 cash contributed, plus $400 share of partnership liabilities under § 752, and less $500 [share of] tax depreciation).

(iv) Tax basis capital account of a partner who acquires the partnership interest from another partner. A partner who acquires a partnership interest from another partner, such as by purchase or in a nonrecognition transaction, “has a tax [basis] capital account immediately after the transfer equal to the transferring partner’s tax [basis] capital account immediately before the transfer with respect to the portion of the interest transferred . . . .” However, any section 743(b) basis adjustment the transferring partner may have is not transferred to the acquiring partner. Instead, if the partnership has a section 754 election in effect, the tax basis capital account of the acquiring partner is increased or decreased by the positive or negative adjustment to the tax basis of partnership property under section 743(b) as a result of the transfer.

(v) Safe-Harbor Method for Determining a Partner’s Tax Basis Capital Account. The FAQs provide a safe-harbor method for determining a partner’s tax basis capital account. Under this method, “[p]artnerships may calculate a partner’s tax basis capital account by subtracting the partner’s share of partnership liabilities under § 752 from the partner’s outside basis (safe-harbor approach). If a partnership elects to use the safe-harbor approach, the partnership must report the negative tax basis capital account information as equal to the excess, if any, of the partner’s share of partnership liabilities under § 752 over the partner’s outside basis.”

(vi) Certain partnerships are exempt from reporting negative tax basis capital accounts. Partnerships that satisfy four conditions (those provided in Question 4 on Schedule B to Form 1065) do not have to comply with the requirement to report negative tax basis capital account information. This is because a partnership that satisfies these conditions is not required to complete Item L on Schedule K-1. The four conditions are as follows:

a. The partnership’s total receipts for the tax year were less than $250,000;

b. The partnership’s total assets at the end of the tax year were less than $1 million;

c. Schedules K-1 are filed with the return and furnished to the partners on or before the due date (including extensions) for the partnership return; and

d. The partnership is not filing and is not required to file Schedule M-3.

b. The Service has issued a draft of revised Form 1065 and Schedule K-1 for 2019. The Service has issued a draft of the partnership tax return, Form 1065, and accompanying Schedule K-1 for 2019. The Service has also released draft instructions for the 2019 Form 1065 and draft instructions for the 2019 Schedule K-1. Compared to the 2018 versions, the 2019 versions reflect several significant changes that likely will require a substantial amount of time in many cases on the part of those preparing the return to ensure compliance. Among the significant changes are the following:

Reporting of tax basis capital accounts for each partner on Schedule K-1. Previous versions of Schedule K-1 gave partnerships the option to report a partner’s capital accounts on a tax basis, in accordance with GAAP, as section 704(b) book capital accounts, or on some “other” basis. Tax basis capital accounts were required beginning in 2018 only if a partner’s tax capital account at the beginning or end of the year was negative. The 2019 draft Schedule K-1 requires partnerships to report each partner’s capital account on a tax basis regardless of whether the account is negative. For partnerships that have not historically reported tax basis capital accounts, this requirement would appear to involve recalculating tax capital accounts in prior years and rolling them forward.

Reporting a partner’s share of net unrecognized section 704(c) gain or loss on Schedule K-1. Previous versions of Schedule K-1 required reporting whether a partner had contributed property with a built-in gain or built-in loss in the year of contribution. The 2019 draft Schedule K-1 still requires partnerships to report whether a partner contributed property with a built-in gain or loss, but adds new Item N in Part II, which requires reporting the “Partner’s Share of Net Unrecognized Section 704(c) Gain or (Loss).” This means that a partnership must report on an annual basis any unrecognized gain or loss that would be allocated to the partner under section 704(c) (if the partnership were to sell its assets) as a result of either the partner contributing property with a fair market value that differs from its adjusted basis or the revaluation of partnership property (such as a revaluation occurring upon the admission of a new partner).

Separation of guaranteed payments for capital and services. Previous versions of Schedule K-1 required reporting a single category of guaranteed payments to a partner. The 2019 draft Schedule K-1 refines this category in Item 4 of Part III and requires separate reporting of guaranteed payments for services, guaranteed payments for capital, and the total of these two categories.

Reporting on Schedule K-1 more than one activity for purposes of the at-risk and passive activity loss rules. Items 21 and 22 have been added to Part III of Schedule K-1 to require the partnership to check a box if the partnership has more than one activity for purposes of the at-risk or passive activity loss rules. The 2019 draft instructions for Form 1065 indicate that the partnership also must provide an attached statement for each activity with detailed information for each activity to allow the partner to apply correctly the at-risk and passive activity loss rules.

Section 199A deduction moved to supplemental statement. The 2018 version of Schedule K-1 required reporting information relevant to the partner’s section 199A deduction in Item 20 of Part III with specific codes. The draft 2019 instructions for Form 1065 provide that, for partners receiving information relevant to their section 199A deduction, only code Z should be used in Box 20 along with an asterisk and STMT to indicate that the information appears on an attached statement. According to the instructions, among other items, the statement must include the partner’s distributive share of (1) qualified items of income, gain, deduction, and loss, (2) W-2 wages, (3) unadjusted basis immediately after acquisition of qualified property, (4) qualified publicly traded partnership items, and (5) section 199A dividends (qualified REIT dividends). The statement also must report whether any of the partnership’s trades or businesses are specified service trades or businesses and identify any trades or businesses that are aggregated.

Disregarded entity as a new category of partner on Schedule K-1. Previous versions of Schedule K-1 required the partnership to indicate whether the partner was domestic or foreign. The 2019 draft Schedule K-1 adds a new category in item H of Part II in which the partnership must indicate whether the partner is a disregarded entity and, if so, the partner’s taxpayer identification number and type of entity.

c. The Service has postponed the requirements to use tax basis capital accounts for Schedule K-1 and to report detailed information for purposes of the at-risk rules and has clarified certain other reporting requirements. In response to comments expressing concern that those required to file Form 1065 and Schedule K-1 might be unable to comply in a timely manner with the requirement to report capital accounts on a tax basis for 2019, the Treasury Department and the Service have deferred this requirement, which will now apply to partnership tax years beginning on and after January 1, 2020. According to the Notice:

This means that partnerships and other persons may continue to report partner capital accounts on Forms 1065, Schedule K-1, Item L, or 8865, Schedule K-1, Item F, using any method available in 2018 (tax basis, Section 704(b), GAAP, or any other method) for 2019. These partnerships and other persons must include a statement identifying the method upon which a partner’s capital account is reported.

The requirement to report capital accounts for 2019 using any method available in 2018 includes the requirement that partnerships that do not report tax basis capital accounts to partners must report, on line 20 of Schedule K-1 (Form 1065) using code AH, the amount of a partner’s tax basis capital account at both the beginning and at the end of the year if either amount is negative.

The draft 2019 Schedule K-1 included Items 21 and 22 in Part III to require the partnership to check a box if the partnership has more than one activity for purposes of the at-risk or passive activity loss rules. The 2019 draft instructions for Form 1065 also required a partnership to provide an attached statement for each activity with detailed information for each activity to allow the partner to apply correctly the at-risk and passive activity loss rules. In response to comments expressing concern that those required to file Form 1065 and Schedule K-1 might be unable to comply in a timely manner with the requirement to provide this detailed information in an attached statement, Notice 2019-66 defers this requirement. This requirement now will apply to partnership tax years beginning on and after January 1, 2020. The Notice leaves in place for 2019 the requirement that a box be checked in Items 21 and 22 in Part III of Schedule K-1 if the partnership has more than one activity for purposes of the at-risk or passive activity loss rules.

The Notice also leaves in place for 2019 the requirement that a partnership must report on an annual basis a partner’s share of “net unrecognized Section 704(c) gain or loss.” The draft 2019 instructions for Schedule K-1, however, had not defined the term “net unrecognized Section 704(c) gain or loss.” The Notice defines this term as “the partner’s share of the net (net means aggregate or sum) of all unrecognized gains or losses under section 704(c) of the Code (Section 704(c)) in partnership property, including Section 704(c) gains and losses arising from revaluations of partnership property.” This definition applies solely for purposes of completing 2019 forms. The Notice clarifies that publicly traded partnerships need not report net unrecognized Section 704(c) gain for 2019 and future years until further notice. The Notice also indicates that commenters had requested additional guidance on section 704(c) computations, especially on issues such as those addressed in Notice 2009-70, which solicited comments on the rules relating to the creation and maintenance of multiple layers of forward and reverse section 704(c) gain and loss to partnerships and tiered partnerships. Notice 2019-66 provides that, “[f]or purposes of reporting for 2019, partnerships and other persons should generally resolve these issues in a reasonable manner, consistent with prior years’ practice for purposes of applying Section 704(c) to partners.” The Notice provides that taxpayers who follow the provisions of the Notice will not be subject to any penalty for reporting in accordance with the guidance it provides.

d. The Service has proposed two exclusive methods for satisfying the requirement to report tax basis capital accounts for partnership taxable years ending on or after December 31, 2020, and has asked for comments. In Notice 2020-43, the Service has proposed a requirement that partnerships use only one of two exclusive methods for reporting a partner’s tax capital account that would apply to partnership taxable years that end on or after December 31, 2020. Pursuant to the proposed requirement, partnerships would no longer be permitted to report partner capital accounts using any other method, including reporting capital accounts in accordance with GAAP or as section 704(b) book capital accounts. The Notice indicates that comments received in response to the Notice “will help inform the development of the instructions to be included in Form 1065 . . . for taxable year 2020.”

(i) Background. According to the Notice, commenters have indicated that they determine tax basis capital accounts using what the Notice refers to as a “Transactional Approach.” It appears that this approach is analogous to the method for determining a partner’s book capital account prescribed in the regulations regarding the substantial economic effect requirement of section 704(b), except that the adjusted basis of property is used instead of the property’s fair market value. Under this Transactional Approach, a partner’s tax capital account is (1) increased by the amount of money and the adjusted basis of property contributed by a partner (less any liabilities assumed by the partnership or to which the property is subject) and by allocations to the partner of partnership income or gain and (2) decreased by the amount of money and the adjusted basis of property distributed to the partner (less any liabilities assumed by the partner or to which the distributed property is subject) and by allocations to the partner of partnership loss or deduction. The Notice indicates that the Treasury Department and the Service understand that partnerships using the Transactional Approach “may not have been adjusting partner tax capital accounts in the same way under similar fact patterns.”

Further, issuing detailed guidance to promote consistent application of the Transactional Approach, according to some commenters, would be a major project that would consume significant Service resources. Accordingly, the Notice rejects a Transactional Approach to determining tax capital accounts and indicates that tax capital accounts determined in this manner will not satisfy the requirement to report partner tax capital accounts. Instead, the Notice prescribes two alternative proposed methods for determining a partner’s tax capital account: (1) the “Modified Outside Basis Method” and (2) the “Modified Previously Taxed Capital Method.” These methods are discussed below.

(ii) Modified Outside Basis Method. The Notice indicates that a partnership using the Modified Outside Basis Method to determine a partner’s tax capital account must determine, or be provided by the partner, the partner’s adjusted basis in the partnership interest (determined under the principles and provisions of Subchapter K, including sections 705, 722, 733, and 742) and subtract from it the partner’s share of partnership liabilities under section 752. (This method was described as a safe-harbor approach in the FAQs discussed above, which appear on the Service’s website.) If the partnership is using this method, a partner must notify the partnership in writing of changes to the partner’s basis in the partnership during the year other than those attributable to contributions by the partner, distributions to the partner, and allocations to the partner of income, gain, loss or deduction that are reflected on the partnership’s Schedule K-1. An example of a situation in which notification to the partnership would be required is if a person purchases a partnership interest. A partnership using the Modified Outside Basis Method is entitled to rely on information provided by partners regarding the bases of their partnership interests unless the partnership has knowledge of facts indicating that the information is clearly erroneous.

(iii) Modified Previously Taxed Capital Method. The Modified Previously Taxed Capital Method is a modified version of the method prescribed in Regulation section 1.743-1(d). The method prescribed in this Regulation is used in determining the adjustments to the basis of partnership property under section 743(b) when a person purchases a partnership interest and the partnership has in effect a section 754 election. One adjustment is to increase the adjusted basis of partnership property by the excess of the purchasing partner’s basis in the partnership interest over the partner’s proportionate share of the adjusted basis of partnership property. A partner’s proportionate share of the adjusted basis of partnership property is the purchasing partner’s interest as a partner in the partnership’s previously taxed capital, plus his or her share of partnership liabilities. In essence, the method prescribed in Regulation section 1.743-1(d) determines the partner’s interest in the partnership’s previously taxed capital (i.e., tax capital account) by first determining the partner’s share of total capital and then backing out the portion that has not yet been taxed. Specifically, Regulation section 1.743-1(d) provides that a partner’s share of previously taxed capital is determined by performing a hypothetical disposition by the partnership of all of its assets in a fully taxable transaction for cash equal to the fair market value of the assets and ascertaining:

  1. The amount of cash the partner would receive on a liquidation following the hypothetical disposition of assets, increased by
  2. The amount of tax loss that would be allocated to the partner from the hypothetical disposition of assets, and decreased by
  3. The amount of tax gain that would be allocated to the partner from the hypothetical disposition of assets.

The Notice modifies this method in two ways. First, it modifies the hypothetical disposition of assets to permit partnerships to use the fair market of assets if the fair market value is readily available or, alternatively, the bases of assets determined under section 704(b) (i.e., section 704(b) book basis), GAAP, “or the basis set forth in the partnership agreement for purposes of determining what each partner would receive if the partnership were to liquidate, as determined by partnership management.” Second, for purposes of the second and third parts of the method set forth (allocation of tax loss and gain), the Notice provides that all partnership liabilities are treated as nonrecourse “to avoid the burden of having to characterize the underlying debt and to simplify the computation.” Partnerships that use the Modified Previously Taxed Capital Method will be required, for each year that the method is used, to attach to the partnership tax return a statement indicating that the Modified Previously Taxed Capital Method is used, and the method used to determine the partnership’s net liquidity value (such as fair market value, section 704(b) book basis, or GAAP).

(iv) Consistency and Change of Methods. The Notice indicates that, whichever of the two methods the partnership uses, it must use the same method with respect to all partners. The first year for which the requirement to use one of these two methods to determine tax capital accounts will apply is 2020. For taxable years after 2020, the partnership can change methods by attaching a disclosure to each Schedule K-1 that describes the change (if any) to the amount attributable to each partner’s beginning and end-of-year balances and the reason for the change.

(v) Request for Comments. The Service has requested comments, due by August 4, 2020, on the following five topics:

  1. Whether the two proposed exclusive methods described above for determining tax capital accounts should be modified or adopted;
  2. Whether, in connection with the hypothetical disposition of assets required as part of the Modified Previously Taxed Capital Method, an ordering rule should apply to the value used in the hypothetical disposition, for example, use of fair market value might be required if readily available, and if it is not readily available, then section 704(b) book basis might be required unless the partnership does not maintain book capital accounts in accordance with section 704(b), in which case GAAP would be required;
  3. How, if at all, the requirement to report tax capital accounts should be modified to apply to publicly traded partnerships;
  4. Whether a Transactional Approach to determining tax capital accounts should be permitted and what additional guidance would be necessary to permit this approach; and
  5. Whether (and in what circumstances) limitations should be imposed on partnerships to change from one method of determining tax capital accounts to another, including how partnerships would comply with such limitations in the case of the merger of partnerships using different methods.

e. The draft instructions for Form 1065 and Schedule K-1 for 2020 require reporting tax basis capital accounts using a transactional approach. The Service has released draft instructions for the 2020 Form 1065 and draft instructions for the 2020 Schedule K-1. Previous versions of Schedule K-1 gave partnerships the option to report a partner’s capital accounts on a tax basis, in accordance with GAAP, as section 704(b) book capital accounts, or on some “other” basis. Tax basis capital accounts were required beginning in 2018 only if a partner’s tax capital account at the beginning or end of the year was negative.

The 2020 draft instructions for Form 1065 and Schedule K-1 require partnerships to report each partner’s capital account on a tax basis regardless of whether the account is negative. Further, each partner’s tax capital account must be determined using a transactional approach. For partnerships that reported capital accounts on a tax basis in the prior year (and those that did not report tax capital accounts but maintained tax basis capital accounts in their books and records), a partner’s beginning tax capital account generally will be the partner’s ending tax capital account from the prior year, or zero for a partner that acquired his or her partnership interest by making a contribution during the year, or the transferor partner’s capital account for a partner that acquired his or her partnership interest during the year from another partner.

For partnerships that did not report tax basis capital accounts in the prior year and did not maintain tax capital accounts in their books and records, a partner’s beginning tax capital account can be determined for this year only using the tax basis method (presumably a transactional approach) or one of three alternative methods. These alternative methods are (1) the modified outside basis method, (2) the modified previously taxed capital method, or (3) the section 704(b) method. The first two of these methods were proposed in Notice 2020-43. Under the section 704(b) method, the amount to report as the partner’s beginning tax capital account is equal to the partner’s section 704(b) book capital account, minus the partner’s share of built-in gain that would be allocated to the partner under section 704(c) plus the partner’s share of built-in loss that would be allocated to the partner under section 704(c) if the partnership were to sell its assets. Such allocations of built-in gain or loss under section 704(c) can result from either the partner contributing property with a fair market value that differs from its adjusted basis or the revaluation of partnership property (such as a revaluation occurring upon the admission of a new partner).

VIII. Tax Shelters

A. Tax Shelter Cases and Rulings

There were no significant developments regarding this topic during 2020.

B. Identified “Tax Avoidance Transactions”

There were no significant developments regarding this topic during 2020.

C. Disclosure and Settlement

There were no significant developments regarding this topic during 2020.

D. Tax Shelter Penalties

There were no significant developments regarding this topic during 2020.

IX. Exempt Organizations and Charitable Giving

A. Exempt Organizations

1. Multiple exempt organization regulatory projects closed (or “canned?”) in 2020 and early 2021.

The TCJA made significant changes with respect to the taxation of exempt organizations, including one change that since has been retroactively repealed. We summarize below the recent developments with respect to these changes as well as final regulations relating to the reporting requirements of exempt organizations under section 6033.

a. “Phubit” parking tax goes the way of the dodo. The TCJA added new section 512(a)(7) effective as of January 1, 2018. The effect of new section 512(a)(7) was to create or increase an organization’s unrelated business taxable income by the amount of any expenses paid or incurred by an organization that are disallowed by the changes made to section 274 for qualified transportation fringe benefits (generally, subsidized parking for employees). In short, new section 512(a)(7) turned out to be a disaster—in part because, for some organizations, it worked not just to increase but to create phantom unrelated business income tax (a/k/a “phubit”) where none had existed previously. Wisely, perhaps, Congress retroactively repealed section 512(a)(7) as part of the Taxpayer Certainty and Disaster Tax Relief Act of 2019, effective as of the date of enactment in 2017. This retroactive repeal not only eliminated the need for guidance, but also engendered refund claims by affected exempt organizations. Those organizations may file an amended Form 990-T to claim refunds.

b. No more offsetting UBTI from one trade or business with UBT from another trade or business. Organizations described in section 401(a) (pension and retirement plans) and section 501(c) (charitable and certain other entities) generally are exempt from federal income taxation. Nevertheless, sections 511 through 514 impose federal income tax upon the “unrelated business taxable income” (UBTI) of such organizations, including for this purpose state colleges and universities. The principal sources of UBTI are sections 512 and 513 “unrelated trade or business” gross income (minus deductions properly attributable thereto) and section 514 “unrelated debt-financed income” (minus deductions), including a partner’s allocable share of income from a partnership generating UBTI. Under pre-TCJA law, if an exempt organization had unrelated business income (UBI) from one activity, but unrelated business losses (UBL) from another activity, then the income and losses could offset, meaning that the organization would report zero or even negative UBI. New section 512(a)(6), effective as of January 1, 2018, provides that income and losses from separate unrelated trades or businesses no longer may be aggregated. The “catch” to new section 512(a)(6), though, is that exactly what constitutes a separate “trade or business” for UBTI purposes has never been defined, and new section 512(a)(6) did not do so either.

In 2020, the Treasury Department and the Service finalized Proposed Regulations providing guidance on how exempt organizations segregate trades or businesses for purposes of determining UBI and UBL in accordance with section 512(a)(6). Generally, the final Regulations provide that an exempt organization must identify and segregate each of its separate unrelated trades or businesses using the first two digits of the North American Industry Classification System code (NAICS 2-digit code). Organizations should do so by choosing the NAICS 2-digit code that most accurately describes the unrelated trade or business. Notably, the Regulations do not adopt the approach taken by the section 199A regulations because, in the view of the Treasury Department and the Service, section 512(a)(6) and section 199A serve different purposes.

The final Regulations are detailed, complex, and will not be discussed further here. They are, however, a must read for tax advisors to exempt organizations that have UBTI. The Regulations are applicable to taxable years beginning on or after December 2, 2020. In addition, affected exempt organizations may choose to apply the Regulations to taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2018, and before December 2, 2020. Alternatively, affected exempt organizations may rely on a reasonable, good-faith interpretation of section 512(a)(6) for such taxable years. For this purpose, a reasonable, good-faith interpretation includes the methods of aggregating or identifying separate trades or businesses provided in Notice 2018-67 or the methods in the previously published Proposed Regulations.

c. Final guidance from Treasury and the Service admits Congress’s “airball” when enacting new section 4960. Another change to the taxation of exempt organizations was the addition of new section 4960 by the TCJA. Section 4960 imposes a 21% excise tax on “applicable tax-exempt organizations” (ATEOs) and broadly-defined “related organizations” paying over $1 million annually to “covered employees.” In addition to section 527 political organizations and section 521 farmers cooperatives, ATEOs include the following two additional types of organizations: (1) those exempt from tax under section 501(a) (most nonprofits, including churches, hospitals, and private schools) and (2) those with “income excluded from taxation under section 115(l).” A “covered employee” is defined as any one of the five highest compensated employees of an ATEO for either (1) the current taxable year or (2) any year beginning after December 31, 2016. Licensed medical or veterinarian professionals, however, are excluded from the definition of a “covered employee.”

The Treasury Department and the Service issued Proposed Regulations regarding section 4960 in June of 2020 that were finalized in early January 2021. These Proposed and now final Regulations followed interim guidance issued early in 2019. The final Regulations are technical and extensive, so they will not be discussed in detail here. Importantly, though, new section 4960 essentially does not apply to governmental entities (including state colleges and universities) with highly compensated employees (e.g., coaches), even though Congress apparently thought that it would. The reason such governmental entities generally escape section 4960 is because Congress chose to describe them as organizations with “income excluded from taxation under section 115(l).” The Service’s longstanding position, however, is that governmental entities (including state colleges and universities) which are not separately incorporated are exempt under the doctrine of implied statutory immunity notwithstanding section 115(l) (unless and until Congress enacts a specific statutory provision, like section 511(a)(2)(B) regarding UBIT, subjecting such state-affiliated organizations to tax). The Preamble to the Proposed Regulations confirms this important point, stating that “a governmental entity (including a state college or university) that does not have a determination letter recognizing its exemption from taxation under section 501(a) and that does not exclude income from gross income under section 115(1) is not an ATEO.” Furthermore, a state college or university that has secured exemption under section 501(a) (because it applied for tax-exempt status thereunder using Service Form 1023 and received a determination letter) “may relinquish this status pursuant to the procedures described in section 3.01(12) of Rev. Proc. 2020-5 . . . (or the analogous section in any successor revenue procedure).” The final Regulations are effective as of January 15, 2021, and apply to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2021.

d. Final Regulations consolidating, reconciling, and otherwise clarifying the numerous changes to the annual information return requirements of section 6033. Pursuant to section 6033, organizations exempt from taxation under section 501(a) generally are required to file annual information returns and make such returns publicly available for inspection. Exceptions to filing exist (e.g., for churches), including exceptions to public disclosure of certain items otherwise reportable on these annual information returns. The applicable rules and exceptions thereto have been modified over the past several years, so in 2020 the Treasury Department and the Service finalized Regulations reflecting the cumulative changes. The details of these Regulations will not be discussed here. The final Regulations are effective on May 28, 2020, and generally apply to returns file on or after January 30, 2020.

B. Charitable Giving

1. Provisions of the CARES Act that affect charitable contributions

a. “CARE” for a charitable panacea (at least in part) for a pandemic? A limited above-the-line deduction in 2020 and a deduction for nonitemizers in 2021 for contributions to public charities. It took a pandemic, but Congress has reversed itself, at least partially, with respect to nonitemizers and charitable contributions. To wit, the CARES Act added new section 62(a)(22), which allows individual taxpayers who claim the standard deduction (i.e., nonitemizers) to deduct up to $300 in above-the-line “qualified charitable contributions.” The legislation also adds new section 62(f), which defines “qualified charitable contributions” as donations of cash to organizations described in section 170(b)(1)(A)—primarily, so-called “public charities” such as churches, schools, hospitals, and publicly-supported nonprofits, but not nonoperating private foundations, donor-advised funds, and Type III supporting organizations. New sections 62(a)(22) and 62(f) are effective for taxable years beginning after 2019. This above-the-line deduction for qualified charitable contributions applies to “taxable years beginning in 2020” and thus is in effect for 2020.

(i) These changes for nonitemizers partially reverse a significant effect of the TCJA. The TCJA substantially increased the standard deduction such that many taxpayers no longer need to itemize deductions starting in 2018. In 2020, for instance, the standard deduction is $24,800 for joint returns and surviving spouses, $12,400 for unmarried individuals and married individuals filing separately, and $18,650 for heads of households. Many charities predicted that the increased standard deduction would lead to decreased charitable giving, and a study by Giving USA found this to be true for 2018.

(ii) Congress has extended this deduction, in modified form, to 2021. A provision of the Taxpayer Certainty and Disaster Tax Relief Act of 2020 amends section 170 by enacting new section 170(p). Section 170(p) provides that, if an individual does not elect to itemize deductions, then the deduction authorized by section 170 is equal to the deduction that would be determined, not in excess of $300 ($600 for joint filers), for cash contributions to public charities. The legislation simultaneously repeals sections 62(a)(22) and 62(f), both enacted by the CARES Act, and amends the definition of taxable income in section 63(b) to make clear that the limited deduction authorized by section 170(p) is subtracted from adjusted gross income to arrive at taxable income. Thus, the $300 deduction for cash contributions to public charities will no longer be an above-the-line deduction but nevertheless will be available to nonitemizers. This change applies to taxable years beginning after December 31, 2020.

b. Also new for 2020 and 2021: You can elect to “CARE” less about charitable contribution limits on donations of cash to public charities. The CARES Act temporarily suspends for 2020 the charitable contribution limits of section 170(b) for electing individual and corporate taxpayers. The legislation provides that “qualified contributions” by an individual are not subject to the normal limits and instead are allowed, if the individual so elects, up to the amount by which the taxpayer’s contribution base (generally, adjusted gross income) exceeds the other charitable contributions the taxpayer makes, that is, those subject to the normal limits. In effect, this permits individual taxpayers to elect to deduct qualified contributions up to 100% of the taxpayer’s contribution base (AGI) after taking into account other charitable contributions.

A corporation may elect to deduct qualified contributions up to the amount by which 25% of its taxable income exceeds the corporation’s other charitable contributions, that is, the corporation can deduct qualified contributions up to 25% of taxable income after taking into account other charitable contributions. Qualified contributions by an individual or a corporation that exceed the relevant limit can be carried forward five years. A qualified contribution is defined as a contribution paid in cash during 2020 to an organization described in section 170(b)(1)(A) with respect to which the taxpayer elects to have the increased limits apply. As noted above, section 170(b)(1)(A) organizations primarily consist of so-called “public charities” such as churches, schools, hospitals, and publicly-supported nonprofits, but not nonoperating private foundations, donor-advised funds, and Type III supporting organizations. Section 2205 of the CARES Act does not specify precisely how individuals and corporations elect into the temporary charitable contribution limits for donations of cash made in 2020. The legislation also temporarily increases from 15% to 25% the section 170(e)(3)(C) limit on contributions of food inventory made in 2020.

(i) These same rules apply for 2021. Congress has extended these increased limits on cash contributions to public charities to 2021. A provision of the Taxpayer Certainty and Disaster Tax Relief Act of 2020, amends section 2205 of the CARES Act to provide that the increased limits also apply in 2021.

(ii) The individual limit already had been increased slightly. Prior to the CARES Act, Congress, in the TCJA, had increased the limit on deducting charitable contributions for individual donations from its historical norm without requiring an election into the new rules. Under sections 170(b)(1)(G) and (H), individuals can take a charitable contribution deduction of up to 60% of their contribution base for cash donations made to section 170(b)(1)(A) organizations in taxable years beginning after 2017 but before 2026. Beginning in 2026 and thereafter, the charitable contri-bution limit for individuals reverts to its historical norm of 50% of an individual’s contribution base.

(iii) This is not a revolutionary idea. Increasing charitable contri-bution deduction limits on an elective basis during times of crisis is not a new idea. For instance, section 504(a) of the 2017 Disaster Tax Relief Act increased the charitable contribution limits for donations that benefitted those affected by Hurricanes Harvey, Irma, or Maria for eligible and electing taxpayers. Similarly, the Bipartisan Budget Act of 2018 increased the limit on deductions for charitable contributions towards relief efforts in areas affected by the California wildfires for eligible and electing taxpayers. Most recently, a provision of the Further Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2020 provided special rules for charitable contributions for relief efforts in qualified disaster areas.

2. ♫♪♬“We are the champions . . . we are the champions!”♬♪♫ of denseflower knotweed, canoers, and kayakers, says this golf course taxpayer.

In Champions Retreat Golf Founders, LLC v. Commissioner, a three-judge panel of the Eleventh Circuit reversed and remanded the Tax Court. In an opinion by Judge Hinkle (District Judge sitting by designation), the court upheld a golf course conservation easement as meeting the “conservation purpose” requirement of section 170(h). Moreover, the Eleventh Circuit upheld the conservation easement notwithstanding that the golf course was private property generally inaccessible to most of the public. Essentially, the taxpayer won the case because (1) the easement protected land where a rare plant species, the denseflower knotweed, grew and (2) canoers and kayakers floating down the Little and Savannah Rivers could view the undeveloped land protected by the easement.

a. Facts. The taxpayer, an LLC classified as a partnership for federal tax purposes, owned and operated a golf course alongside the Little and Savannah Rivers. In 2009, the golf course struggled financially, so the taxpayer solicited capital contributions from individuals to acquire membership interests. The taxpayer used the capital contributions to strengthen its finances. In 2010, the taxpayer granted a conservation easement over 348 acres of land, including the golf course, to the North American Land Trust. The taxpayer’s members thus enjoyed a charitable contribution deduction passed through to them as members (partners) in the taxpayer LLC. Unlike other conservation easement cases, the Service did not challenge the technical language of the easement deed, but instead argued that the contribution was not made “exclusively for conservation purposes” within the meaning of section 170(h)(4)(A).

b. Analysis. Section 170(h)(4)(A) defines a “conservation purpose” in part as “the protection of a relatively natural habitat of fish, wildlife, or plants, or similar ecosystem” or “the preservation of open space . . . where such preservation is . . . for the scenic enjoyment of the general public . . . .” In the Tax Court, the Service convinced Judge Pugh that the taxpayer had not established the required conservation purpose. Judge Pugh discounted the testimony of the taxpayer’s experts regarding plants and wildlife inhabiting the easement property, and Judge Pugh also held that public access was lacking. Furthermore, Judge Pugh emphasized that chemicals used on the golf course could defeat the conservation purpose of the easement.

The Eleventh Circuit, however, disagreed with Judge Pugh. Observing that nothing in the Code or regulations per se prohibits a golf course easement from qualifying for a conservation purpose, the Eleventh Circuit recounted the numerous species of birds and wildlife inhabiting the conservation easement land. Most significant, the Eleventh Circuit found, was the presence of the denseflower knotweed, a rare plant species growing on one portion of the land covered by the easement. Responding to the Service’s argument that the property was not accessible to the general public, the Eleventh Circuit found that canoers and kayakers floating down the Little and Savannah Rivers could enjoy the scenic beauty of the land protected by the easement. They could enjoy the scenic beauty, the Eleventh Circuit found, even if the riverbank partially obscured their view allowing them to see only the trees on the golf course. That view, the Eleventh Circuit concluded, was “scenic” as compared to the sight of condominiums and private homes elsewhere on the rivers. Having upheld the conservation purpose of the taxpayer’s easement, the Eleventh Circuit remanded the case to the Tax Court to determine the proper value of the taxpayer’s charitable contribution deduction.

3. What does “protected in perpetuity” mean? These cases provide some answers in the context of conservation easements.

It is well known that the Service is battling syndicated conservation easements. Moreover, after recent victories, the Service has announced a time-limited settlement offer to certain taxpayers with pending Tax Court cases involving syndicated conservation easements. Other than challenging valuations, the Service’s most successful strategy in combating syndicated conservation easements generally has centered around the “protected in perpetuity” requirement of section 170(h)(2)(C) and (h)(5)(A). The Service has argued successfully in the Tax Court that the “protected in perpetuity” requirement is not met where the taxpayer’s easement deed fails to meet the strict requirements of the “extinguishment regulation.” The extinguishment regulation ensures that conservation easement property is protected in perpetuity because, upon destruction or condemnation of the property and collection of any proceeds therefrom, the charitable donee must proportionately benefit.

According to the Service’s and Tax Court’s reading of the extinguishment regulation, the charitable donee’s proportionate benefit must be determined by a fraction determined at the time of the gift as follows: the value of the conservation easement as compared to the total value of the property subject to the conservation easement (hereinafter the “proportionate benefit fraction”). Thus, upon extinguishment of a conservation easement due to an unforeseen event such as condemnation, the charitable donee must be entitled to receive an amount equal to the product of the proportionate benefit fraction multiplied by the proceeds realized from the disposition of the property. As part of its litigation strategy against syndicated conservation easements, the Service pounces upon any technical flaws in the deed’s extinguishment clause/proportionate benefit fraction language. In fact, the Service recently has been successful in challenging extinguishment clause/proportionate benefit fraction language that would either (1) allow the donor to reclaim from the charitable donee property subject to a conservation easement by conveying to the donee substitute property in exchange therefor or (2) reduce the charitable donee’s benefit upon extinguishment of the conservation easement by the fair market value of post-contribution improvements made to the subject property after the date of the taxpayer-donor’s deductible gift. The latter argument by the Service—that a properly drafted extinguishment clause/proportionate benefit fraction cannot give the donor credit for post-contribution improvements to the conservation easement property—is particularly potent. This argument by the Service is the subject of the two Tax Court companion opinions rendered in Oakbrook Land Holdings, LLC v. Commissioner, as discussed below. Reportedly, many conservation easement deeds have such language, especially syndicated conservation easement deeds originating in the southeastern United States. Hence, the Tax Court’s opinions in Oakbrook Land Holdings, LLC v. Commissioner are very important to the conservation easement industry.

a. Duh, 45 days is not perpetuity. And here’s yet one more case, Hoffman Props. II, LP v. Commissioner, in which a court struck down a conservation easement deduction. Instead of “extinguishment clause” language, though, this case turns on another provision in the easement deed that the Tax Court and the Sixth Circuit found problematic under the “protected in perpetuity” requirement of section 170(h)(2)(C) and (h)(5)(A).

(i) Facts. The taxpayer, a limited partnership owning the historic Tremaine Building in Cleveland, Ohio, donated a $15 million façade easement and certain airspace restrictions to the American Association of Historic Preservation (AAHP). One paragraph in the easement deed provided for certain conditional actions that the taxpayer could take with respect to the building so long as the charitable donee, AAHP, agreed. For instance, with AAHP’s consent, the taxpayer could “‘[a]lter, reconstruct or change the appearance’” of the building’s façade or “‘[a]lter or change the appearance’” of the building’s airspace. Rather than leaving any such proposed changes entirely up to AAHP, however, the easement deed further provided that AAHP’s consent was deemed granted if AAHP failed to either approve or reject any proposed changes “within forty-five (45) days of receipt” of a request from the taxpayer. In an unpublished order granting summary judgment to the Service, the Tax Court, Judge Nega, held that the easement deed failed to meet multiple aspects of section 170(h).

(ii) Analysis. In an opinion by Judge Thapar, a three-judge panel of the Sixth Circuit upheld the Tax Court’s decision granting summary judgment to the Service. The Sixth Circuit, though, focused upon the 45-day provision mentioned above as violative of the “protected in perpetuity” requirement of section 170(h)(2)(C) and (h)(5)(A). With respect to the 45-day deemed approval language in the easement deed, Judge Thapar wrote, “[i]t almost goes without saying that this provision violates the ‘perpetuity’ requirement. After all, there’s a world of difference between restrictions that are enforceable ‘in perpetuity’ and those that are enforceable for only 45 days.” The Sixth Circuit also rejected numerous arguments made by the taxpayer, including arguments that (1) the Tax Court had raised the 45-day provision sua sponte (on its own accord), (2) other language in the easement deed appropriately limited the 45-day provision, (3) the 45-day provision was similar to language in a “model” conservation easement deed, (4) a previously executed but unrecorded amendment remedied any deficiency in the original easement deed, and (5) the application of the 45-day provision was so remote as to be “negligible” within the meaning of Regulation section 1.170A-14(g)(3).

b. A Crack in the Service’s armor with respect to syndicated conservation easements? Or, a death knell for taxpayers? You be the judge. In Oakbrook Land Holdings and its companion opinion, totaling 172 pages, the Tax Court disallowed a taxpayer-donor’s charitable contribution deduction because the language in the conservation easement deed was found to be defective under either of two theories argued by the Service and supported by the Tax Court’s reading of Regulation section 1.170A-14(g)(6)(ii). The taxpayer-donor’s counter arguments, that the conservation easement deed’s language was correct and that Regulation section 1.170A-14(g)(6)(ii) is invalid, failed to persuade the Tax Court. Just to keep us on our toes, perhaps, the Tax Court’s decision resulted in two lengthy opinions. Judge Lauber wrote the majority opinion for the Tax Court’s reviewed decision regarding one theory of the case, while Judge Holmes wrote a memorandum decision based upon another theory of the case. Interestingly, Oakbrook Land Holdings did not arise out of a syndicated conservation easement; however, the decisions are very informative as to the Service’s litigation strategy with respect to syndicated conservation easements as well as the Tax Court’s view of the law applicable to conservation easements generally.

(i) Facts. The facts of Oakbrook Land Holdings are typical of recent conservation easement cases litigated in the Tax Court. The taxpayer-donor, Oakbrook Holdings LLC, acquired a 143-acre parcel of property near Chattanooga, Tennessee, in 2007 for $1.7 million. The plan was to develop the property for “higher-end, single family residences.” In late 2008 Oakbrook Holdings LLC transferred approximately 37 acres of the property to related entities to allow a portion of the property to be developed without restrictions relating to the remainder of the property. The remaining 106 acres of the property then was subjected to a conservation easement in favor of Southeast Regional Land Conservancy (the Conservancy), a section 501(c)(3) organization. The taxpayer-donor, Oakbrook Holdings LLC, claimed a charitable contribution deduction of over $9.5 million for the donated conservation easement even though the contribution occurred only a little over a year after Oakbrook Holdings LLC had acquired the property for $1.7 million. Oakbrook Holdings LLC largely relied upon the charitable donee, the Conservancy, and its attorneys to draft the conservation easement deed. The Conservancy in turn relied upon language found in similar conservation easement deeds that have been executed and approved by numerous taxpayers and their attorneys. The deed provided as follows in relevant part:

This Conservation Easement gives rise to a real property right and interest immediately vested in [the Conservancy]. For purposes of this Conservation Easement, the fair market value of [the Conservancy]’s right and interest shall be equal to the difference between (a) the fair market value of the Conservation Area as if not burdened by this Conservation Easement and (b) the fair market value of the Conservation Area burdened by this Conservation Easement, as such values are determined as of the date of this Conservation Easement, (c) less amounts for improvements made by O[akbrook] in the Conservation Area subsequent to the date of this Conservation Easement, the amount of which will be determined by the value specified for these improvements in a condemnation award in the event all or part of the Conservation Area is taken in exercise of eminent domain as further described in this Article VI, Section B(3) below. If a change in conditions makes impossible or impractical any continued protection of the Conservation Area for conservation purposes, the restrictions contained herein may only be extinguished by judicial proceeding. Upon such proceeding, [the Conservancy], upon a subsequent sale, exchange or involuntary conversion of the Conservation Area, shall be entitled to a portion of the proceeds equal to the fair market value of the Conservation Easement as provided above. [The Conservancy] shall use its share of the proceeds in a manner consistent with the conservation purposes set forth in the Recitals herein.

Article VI, Section B(3) of the deed further stated:

Whenever all or part of the Conservation Area is taken in exercise of eminent domain * * * so as to abrogate the restrictions imposed by this Conservation Easement, * * * [the] proceeds shall be divided in accordance with the proportionate value of [the Conservancy]’s and O[akbrook]’s interests as specified above; all expenses including attorneys fees incurred by O[akbrook] and [the Conservancy] in this action shall be paid out of the recovered proceeds to the extent not paid by the condemning authority.

(ii) First argument of the Service and taxpayer’s response. The Service’s first argument to disallow the taxpayer-donor’s charitable contribution deduction was that the above-quoted language of the conservation easement deed only entitled the charitable donee, the Conservancy, to a fixed (not proportionate) benefit (i.e., historical value of the conservation easement at the time of the gift) upon the destruction or condemnation of the subject property. According to the Service, Regulation section 1.170A-14(g)(6)(ii) requires that the charitable donee be entitled to a proportionate (i.e., fractional) benefit upon extinguishment of a conservation easement. Further, the Service’s position is that the amount of the benefit must be determined by applying the proportionate benefit fraction against the fair market value of the subject property at the time of the extinguishment. Put differently, the Service contends that Regulation section 1.170A-14(g)(6)(ii) does not merely establish a baseline amount equal to the value of the conservation easement as the amount of the benefit to be received by the charitable donee upon extinguishment of a conservation easement. Rather, upon extinguishment of the easement, if the subject property has appreciated in value the charitable donee must be entitled to receive more than the claimed charitable contribution value of the conservation easement. (It is not entirely clear what the Service’s position would be under Regulation section 1.170A-14(g)(6)(ii) if upon extinguishment of the easement the subject property has decreased in value after the taxpayer-donor’s gift, although consistency would argue that the charitable donee should receive less than the claimed charitable contribution value.)

On the other hand, the taxpayer-donor argued, of course, that the above-quoted language in the deed complied with Regulation section 1.170A-14(g)(6)(ii) because the Regulation should be read to require only a fixed (not fractional) amount that must be received by the charitable donee upon extinguishment of a conservation easement. In other words, the taxpayer-donor believed that Regulation section 1.170A-14(g)(6)(ii) was meant to protect the chartable donee’s downside risk: that is, that the event extinguishing the conservation easement would result in proceeds much less than the taxpayer-donor’s claimed charitable contribution deduction. The taxpayer-donor’s reading of Regulation section 1.170A-14(g)(6)(ii) was that the extinguishment clause in a conservation easement deed must entitle the charitable donee to an amount equal to the previously claimed charitable contribution deduction (or, if less, all of the proceeds from the disposition of the property).

(iii) Memorandum opinion of Judge Holmes. In the Tax Court memorandum opinion, Judge Holmes, citing the Tax Court’s prior decision in Coal Property Holdings, agreed with the Service’s position regarding Regulation section 1.170A-14(g)(6)(ii) and the conservation easement language at issue, thereby disallowing the taxpayer-donor’s more than $9.7 million charitable contribution deduction. Judge Holmes reasoned that the language in the deed did not grant a fractional proportionate benefit to the Conservancy. It granted only a minimum benefit equal to the amount of the taxpayer-donor’s claimed charitable contribution deduction. Judge Holmes agreed with the Service that Regulation section 1.170A-14(g)(6)(ii) requires a fractional benefit, not a fixed amount. Other cases also have interpreted Regulation section 1.170A-14(g)(6) to require a fractional, not fixed, benefit in favor of the charitable donee. This aspect of the Tax Court’s decision in Oakbrook Land Holdings is not novel, and presumably this lack of novelty is the reason for this memorandum decision written separately from the Tax Court’s reviewed opinion written by Judge Lauber.

(iv) Second argument of the Service and taxpayer’s response. Alternatively, the Service argued that the above-quoted language in the conservation easement deed was flawed in another respect. Specifically, the Service contended that the deed’s extinguishment language, which required that the charitable donee’s benefit upon destruction or condemnation of the property be reduced by the value of improvements to the property made by the taxpayer-donor after the contribution, was not allowed by the strict requirements of Regulation section 1.170A-14(g)(6)(ii). This position of the Service is not explicitly supported by Regulation section 1.170A-14(g)(6)(ii) and is a novel argument by the Service. The taxpayer-donor responded that, to the extent Regulation section 1.170A-14(g)(6)(ii) is read to disallow such a reduction in the charitable donee’s benefit upon extinguishment of a conservation easement, the extinguishment regulation violates either the procedural or substantive requirements of the Administrative Procedures Act (APA) and is invalid. This alternative argument by the Service, and the taxpayer-donor’s response, was the subject of the Tax Court’s reviewed opinion by Judge Lauber, discussed below.

(v) Reviewed opinion of Judge Lauber. In a reviewed opinion (12-4-1) by Judge Lauber, the Tax Court agreed with the Service’s position concerning Regulation section 1.170A-14(g)(6)(ii) and post-contribution improvements to conservation easement property by a taxpayer-donor. We will spare the reader pages and pages of arguments and counter arguments regarding the requirements of the APA. Suffice it to say that a majority of the Tax Court held that Regulation section 1.170A-14(g)(6)(ii) reflects a reasonable interpretation of the “protected in perpetuity” requirement of section 170(h)(2)(C) and (h)(5)(A). The majority also agreed with the Service’s position that Regulation section 1.170A-14(g)(6)(ii) does not permit the extinguishment clause of a conservation easement deed to reduce the charitable donee’s proportionate benefit by the fair market value of post-contribution improvements to the subject property made by the donor. Hence, the majority disallowed the taxpayer-donor’s claimed $9.7 million plus charitable contribution deduction based upon the Service’s alternative argument (in addition to the grounds expressed in Judge Holmes’s separate memorandum opinion).

(vi) Concurring opinion of Judge Toro. In a concurring opinion, Judge Toro, joined by Judge Urda and in part by Judges Gustafson and Jones, wrote that, although the majority reached the correct result for the reasons expressed in Judge Holmes’s memorandum decision, the majority was mistaken concerning whether Regulation section 1.170A-14(g)(6)(ii) violates the APA and whether the Service’s interpretation of the extinguishment regulation (regarding post-contribution improvements made by a taxpayer-donor) was permissible.

(vii) Dissenting opinion of Judge Holmes. In an interesting twist, Judge Holmes (who held in favor of the Service in his memorandum opinion) dissented from the Tax Court’s reviewed opinion. Judge Holmes wrote: “Our holding today will likely deny any charitable deduction to hundreds or thousands of taxpayers who donated the conservation easements that protect perhaps millions of acres.” And Judge Holmes made his views clear regarding the Service’s interpretation of Regulation section 1.170A-14(g)(6)(ii) to prohibit reduction of a charitable donee’s extinguishment benefit for the value of improvements made by a taxpayer-donor and the Treasury Department’s compliance with the APA: “[I]f the majority is right, the Treasury Department can get by with the administrative-state equivalent of a quiet shrug, a knowing wink, and a silent fleeting glance from across a crowded room.”

X. Tax Procedure

A. Interest, Penalties, and Prosecutions

1. The Tax Court has provided guidance on what constitutes the Service’s “initial determination” to impose penalties for purposes of the supervisory approval requirement of section 6751(b).

In Belair Woods, LLC v. Commissioner, the petitioner, Belair Woods, LLC, was classified as a partnership for federal tax purposes. On its partnership tax return for its taxable year ending December 31, 2009, Belair Woods claimed a $4.78 million charitable contribution deduction for a conservation easement on land in Georgia. On December 18, 2012, the Service revenue agent auditing the partnership’s return sent petitioner a Letter 1807 inviting the tax matters partner (TMP) and other partners to a closing conference to discuss the government’s proposed adjustments, which were set forth in an attached summary report. The letter “indicated that ‘[a]ll proposed adjustments in the summary report will be discussed at the closing conference’ . . . .” The summary report proposed to disallow the $4.78 million charitable contribution deduction, “proposed a ‘gross overvaluation’ penalty under section 6662(h), and in the alternative proposed penalties for negligence and substantial understatement of income tax under section 6662(c) and (d), respectively.” On September 2, 2014, the revenue agent’s supervisor signed a Civil Approval Penalty Form approving the penalties listed on the form. On March 9, 2015, the Service issued a “TMP 60-Day Letter” (60-day letter) that “formally communicated to petitioner the Examination Division’s decision to assert the tax adjustments determined in the examination and the three penalties listed on the Civil Penalty Approval Form.” Following the petitioner’s unsuccessful appeal to the IRS Office of Appeals (IRS Appeals), the Service issued a notice of final partnership administrative adjustment (FPAA) disallowing the $4.78 million charitable contribution deduction and determining a gross valuation misstatement penalty or certain other penalties in the alternative.

The main issue in the case was whether the Service had complied with the requirement of section 6751(b)(1) that the initial determination of the assessment of a penalty be “personally approved (in writing) by the immediate supervisor of the individual making such determination.” The Tax Court (Judge Lauber) reviewed the court’s prior decisions interpreting section 6751(b) and reasoned:

In a deficiency context such as this, we conclude that the “initial determination” of a penalty assessment—the “consequential moment” of IRS action, as the Second Circuit put it in Chai . . . is embodied in the document by which the Examination Division formally notifies the taxpayer, in writing, that it has completed its work and made an unequivocal decision to assert penalties.

In this case, the court concluded that the Letter 1807 inviting the TMP to a closing conference—which informed the petitioner of both the penalties the Service was considering and the defenses that might be available to the petitioner—was not the initial determination of the penalties because it merely advised Belair Woods of the penalties that might be imposed. Instead, the court held, the 60-day letter represented the Service’s initial determination of penalties because it was in this letter that the Service formally notified Belair Woods that the Examination Division had completed its work and that the Service “had made a definite decision to assert penalties.” Because the revenue agent’s supervisor had signed the Civil Penalty Approval Form before the 60-day letter was sent to the taxpayer, the court held the Service had complied with the supervisory approval requirement of section 6751(b) as to the three penalties described in the 60-day letter. In contrast, the court concluded, the Service had not complied with the section 6751(b) supervisory approval requirement as to a fourth penalty that was not mentioned in the 60-day letter and instead was asserted in the FPAA.

2. Former Service revenue agent who prepared tax returns for decades gets the Tax Court to clarify the burden of production with respect to the requirement of section 6751(b) that the individual initially determining accuracy-related penalties obtain written supervisory approval.

In Frost v. Commissioner, Mr. Frost’s poor efforts in substantiating his deductions for 2010–2012 resulted in the Service imposing accuracy-related penalties under section 6672 for each year. The Tax Court (Judge Pugh) held that Mr. Frost, who was a Service revenue agent for 15 years and who prepared tax returns as an enrolled agent for 25 years, failed to substantiate his deductions on his Schedule C, Profit or Loss from Business, and failed to establish his basis in a partnership interest to deduct his share of partnership losses, on his Schedule E, distributive share of partnership losses. However, the court held that the Service had failed to meet its burden of production with respect to accuracy-related penalties for 2010 and 2011 and therefore declined to uphold the penalties.

a. Facts. As a result of the disallowance of Mr. Frost’s deductions, the Service determined penalties under section 6662(a), (b)(1), and (2) for both negligence and substantial understatements of income for the years 2010, 2011, and 2012. The examining agent prepared a Civil Penalty Approval Form (Form) on April 22, 2014. The Form included an electronic signature dated May 20, 2014, approving the substantial understatement penalty but pertained only to Mr. Frost’s 2012 return. The examining agent did not similarly prepare or obtain approval for any penalties in relation to Mr. Frost’s 2010 or 2011 returns. It has long been settled that the Service has the initial burden of production with respect to a taxpayer’s liability for any penalty to come forward with sufficient evidence indicating that the imposition of penalties is appropriate. As part of that burden, the Service must produce evidence that it complied with section 6751(b)(1), which requires that the initial determination of the assessment of a penalty be personally approved in writing by the immediate supervisor of the person making the determination. However, this case presents an issue of first impression for the Tax Court, which has not addressed the point in time when the burden shifts to the taxpayer to show otherwise.

b. Analysis of 2010–2012. The Service failed to offer evidence that it had complied with the supervisory approval requirement of section 6751(b)(1) with respect to the penalties asserted for 2010 and 2011. Because the Service had failed to meet its burden of production, the court held that the Service was precluded from imposing those penalties. In contrast, the Service introduced a signed penalty approval form in relation to Mr. Frost’s 2012 return. The issue then became whether the form supported a finding that a supervisor approved Mr. Frost’s penalty prior to formally communicating it to Mr. Frost in the notice of deficiency and whether the form was sufficient to satisfy the Service’s initial burden of production. If it was, the burden would shift to Mr. Frost to come forward with evidence to the contrary, for example, that the penalty had been communicated to him before the supervisor’s approval was obtained. The court held that the penalty approval form reflected approval of the 2012 substantial underpayment penalty prior to formal communication of it to the taxpayer. Therefore, the form was held sufficient to carry the Service’s initial burden of production under section 7491(c), including the supervisory approval requirement of section 6751(b)(1).

With respect to the 2012 negligence penalty, however, the Service was not able to provide similar evidence, and therefore the Service failed to satisfy its burden of production as to supervisory approval of the negligence penalty. Because the Service had met its burden of production with respect to the 2012 substantial understatement penalty, the court held that the burden shifted to Mr. Frost to offer evidence that the Service’s approval of the substantial understatement penalty was untimely. If he had done so, the court would have been left to weigh the evidence to determine whether the Service had satisfied the supervisory approval requirement of section 6751(b)(1) prior to formally communicating the substantial understatement penalty to the taxpayer. Mr. Frost, however, did not claim and the court found no evidence indicating that the Service communicated any penalty determination to Mr. Frost before the penalty approval form was signed. Accordingly, the court held that, because the Service had complied with the requirements of section 6751(b)(1), Mr. Frost was subject to the substantial understatement penalty determined by the Service.

c. Policy. The court’s holding protects the requirement that the Service come forward initially with evidence of written penalty approval as required by section 6751(b)(1). Shifting the burden to the taxpayer after the Service makes the initial showing avoids requiring the Service to prove a negative, that is, that no formal communication of the penalty took place before supervisory approval of the penalty was obtained. Thereafter, if the taxpayer introduces evidence to contradict the Service’s initial showing, then the Service can respond with additional evidence leaving the court to weigh the evidence. Note further that any evidence of prior formal communication should have been received by the taxpayer. The taxpayer could introduce it to prove the untimeliness of the supervisory approval of the penalty.

3. Is the Service ever going to learn that the section 6751(b) supervisory approval requirement is not met unless the required supervisory approval of a penalty occurs before the initial determination that formally communicates the penalty to the taxpayer?

In Laidlaw’s Harley Davidson Sales, Inc. v. Commissioner, the taxpayer, a C corporation, failed to disclose its participation in a listed transaction as required by section 6011 and Regulation section 1.6011-4(a). The Service revenue agent examining the taxpayer’s return issued a 30-day letter to the taxpayer offering the opportunity for the taxpayer to appeal the proposal to IRS Appeals. The 30-day letter proposed to assess a penalty under section 6707A for failing to disclose a reportable transaction. Approximately three months after the 30-day letter was issued, the revenue agent’s supervisor approved the penalty by signing a Civil Penalty Approval Form. Following unsuccessful discussions with IRS Appeals, the Service assessed the penalty and issued a notice of levy.

The taxpayer requested a collection due process (CDP) hearing with IRS Appeals, following which IRS Appeals issued a notice of determination sustaining the proposed levy. In response to the notice of determination, the taxpayer file a petition in the Tax Court. In the Tax Court, the taxpayer filed a motion for summary judgment on the basis that the Service had failed to comply with the supervisory approval requirement of section 6751(b). Section 6751(b)(1) requires that the “initial determination” of the assessment of a penalty be “personally approved (in writing) by the immediate supervisor of the individual making such determination.”

The Tax Court (Judge Gustafson) granted the taxpayer’s motion. The court first concluded that the supervisory approval requirement of section 6751(b) applies to the penalty imposed by section 6707A. Next the court concluded that the supervisory approval of the section 6707A penalty in this case was not timely because it had not occurred before the Service’s initial determination of the penalty. The parties stipulated that the 30-day letter issued to the taxpayer reflected the Service’s initial determination of the penalty. The supervisory approval of the penalty occurred three months later and therefore, according to the court, was untimely.

The Service argued that the supervisory approval was timely because it occurred before the Service’s assessment of the penalty. In rejecting this argument, the court relied on its prior decisions interpreting section 6751(b), especially Clay v. Commissioner, in which the court held in a deficiency case “that when it is ‘communicated to the taxpayer formally . . . that penalties will be proposed,’ section 6751(b)(1) is implicated.” In Clay, the Service had issued a 30-day letter when it did not have in hand the required supervisory approval of the relevant penalty. The Service can assess the penalty imposed by section 6707A without issuing a notice of deficiency. Nevertheless, the court observed “[t]hough Clay was a deficiency case, we did not intimate that our holding was limited to the deficiency context.”

The court summarized its holding in the present case as follows: “Accordingly, we now hold that in the case of the assessable penalty of section 6707A here at issue, section 6751(b)(1) requires the IRS to obtain written supervisory approval before it formally communicates to the taxpayer its determination that the taxpayer is liable for the penalty.” The court therefore concluded that it had been an abuse of discretion for IRS Appeals to determine that the Service had complied with applicable laws and procedure in issuing the notice of levy. The court accordingly granted the taxpayer’s motion for summary judgment.

4. The trust fund recovery penalty imposed on responsible persons by section 6672(a) is a “penalty” subject to the supervisory approval requirement of section 6751(b), says the Tax Court.

In Chadwick v. Commissioner, the taxpayer was the sole member of two different LLCs, both of which failed to pay employment taxes for several calendar quarters. Different revenue officers were assigned to each LLC. Each revenue officer completed Service Form 4183, Recommendation re: Trust Fund Recovery Penalty Assessment, recommending that the Service hold the taxpayer responsible for total penalties equal to nearly $114,000 of the business’ unpaid employment taxes pursuant to section 6672(a). Each revenue agent’s supervisor electronically signed the appropriate Form 4183 approving the recommendation. On the same day that each Form 4183 was approved by the supervisor, the Service sent to the taxpayer a Letter 1153 (notice of proposed assessment) for each LLC informing him that the Service intended to hold him responsible for a penalty equal to the unpaid employment taxes pursuant to section 6672(a). The Service assessed the penalties and issued a notice of levy. The taxpayer requested a CDP hearing with the Service Office of Appeals, following which IRS Appeals issued a notice of determination sustaining the proposed levy. In response to the notice of determination, the taxpayer file a petition in the Tax Court. In the Tax Court, the Service filed a motion for summary judgment.

The Tax Court (Judge Lauber) granted the government’s motion. In reviewing for abuse of discretion the determination of IRS Appeals to uphold the proposed collection action, the court considered whether the requirement of section 6751(b) that the “initial determination” of the assessment of a penalty be “personally approved (in writing) by the immediate supervisor of the individual making such determination” applies to the penalty imposed by section 6672(a). The court held that the penalty imposed by section 6672(a) on responsible persons who willfully fail to collect or pay over any tax due (commonly referred to as the trust fund recovery penalty) is a “penalty” subject to the supervisory approval requirement of section 6751(b). Further, the court held that the Service had complied with the supervisory approval requirement because the Letters 1153 that the Service had issued to the taxpayer constituted the “initial determination” of the penalty and the appropriate supervisor had approved the penalties on the same day the Letters 1153 were sent to the taxpayer.

5. Taxpayer again escapes penalties where supervisory approval to impose penalties is not obtained until after imposition of the penalties.

In Kroner v. Commissioner, the taxpayer, Mr. Kroner, had an incredibly successful relationship with a benefactor, Mr. Haring, with whom he had worked for years. Notwithstanding that Mr. Kroner submitted into evidence a letter purportedly from Mr. Haring indicating that more than $24 million in transfers over several years to Mr. Kroner were gifts, the transfers were held not to qualify as excludable from gross income under section 102(a) as gifts. Instead, the Tax Court (Judge Marvel) applied the U.S. Supreme Court’s analysis in Commissioner v. Duberstein and held that the transfers were included in Mr. Kroner’s income because he had failed to prove that the transfers were made with detached, disinterested generosity. In short, despite the court’s strong recommendation during trial, Mr. Kroner failed to offer any testimony from Mr. Haring that he had anything more than a business relationship with Mr. Haring. The court found the taxpayer’s story concerning the transfers and the testimony of the taxpayer, his attorney, and a third witness not to be credible.

a. Accuracy-Related Penalties Under Section 6662. The more significant aspect of Kroner relates to Judge Marvel’s denial of the Service’s imposition of accuracy-related penalties under section 6662 based on substantial understatement of income. The issue before the court was whether the Service had complied with the requirement of section 6751(b)(1) that the initial determination of the assessment of a penalty be “personally approved in writing by the immediate supervisor of the individual making such determination.” In Graev v. Commissioner, the Tax Court held that compliance with section 6751(b)(1) is properly a part of the Service’s burden of production under section 7491(c). Further, in Chai v. Commissioner, the Court of Appeals for the Second Circuit held that “the written-approval requirement of § 6751(b)(1) is appropriately viewed as an element of a penalty claim, and therefore part of the IRS’s prima facie penalty case.” The Tax Court has held that the initial determination of a penalty occurs in the document through which the Service Examination Division notifies the taxpayer in writing that the examination is complete and a decision to assert penalties has been made.

Here, the Service supervisor approved the agent’s penalty determination on a Civil Penalty Approval Form dated October 31, 2012. The Service had sent the taxpayer two letters. The first, dated August 6, 2012, was Letter 915 accompanied by Form 4549 (Income Tax Examination Changes), which proposed the penalties and provided the taxpayer with an opportunity to protest the proposed adjustments with IRS Appeals. The second, dated October 31, 2012, was Letter 950 accompanied by Form 4549-A (Income Tax Discrepancy Adjustments), which also offered the taxpayer an opportunity to file a protest with IRS Appeals. According to the court, if Letter 915 was the initial determination to assert accuracy-related penalties, then the Service could not meet its burden to show the required supervisory approval because Letter 915 predated the date on which the Civil Penalty Approval Form was signed. The Service argued that Letter 915 was not the initial determination of the penalties because Letter 915 was not the so-called “30-day letter” giving the taxpayer 30 days within which to file a protest with IRS Appeals and instead was meant only to invite the taxpayer to submit additional information “at a time when it was understood that petitioner would not yet pursue an administrative appeal.” The court rejected this argument.

The court reasoned that Clay had held that a letter offering the taxpayer a right to pursue an administrative appeal and enclosing a revenue agent’s report that proposed a section 6662 penalty was the initial determination within the meaning of section 6751(b), and Letter 915 in this case did just that. The court made clear that the content of the document sent to the taxpayer is the relevant inquiry and not the Service’s subjective intent in mailing the document. The court concluded that the Service made its initial determination of the assessment of penalties no later than August 6, 2012, when Letter 915 was delivered to the taxpayer. Because the initial determination to assert penalties occurred before the Civil Penalty Approval Form was signed on October 31, 2012, the Service had failed to satisfy its burden of production under section 6751(b); the taxpayer, therefore, was not liable for the section 6662(a) accuracy-related penalties.

6. A settlement offer that would have required the taxpayers to pay penalties at a reduced rate was not an “initial determination” of the penalties that required supervisory approval under section 6751(b)(1).

In Thompson v. Commissioner, the taxpayers participated in a distressed asset trust (DAT) transaction, which they disclosed on their returns. The Service revenue agent assigned to examine their returns sent them two letters offering to resolve their tax liabilities associated with the transaction. Each letter proposed that the taxpayers agree to an accuracy-related penalty under section 6662 at a reduced rate. The taxpayers did not accept the settlement offers. The revenue agent then completed his examination of the taxpayers’ returns and concluded that they owed penalties under sections 6662(h) and 6662A. The revenue agent’s acting immediate supervisor signed a memorandum approving the penalties. The Service then sent a notice of deficiency to the taxpayers that reflected both a deficiency and the specified penalties.

The taxpayers argued that the Service had failed to comply with the supervisory approval requirement of section 6751(b)(1). Section 6751(b)(1) requires that the “initial determination” of the assessment of a penalty be “personally approved (in writing) by the immediate supervisor of the individual making such determination.” They argued that the letters sent by the revenue agent offering to settle constituted the Service’s “initial determination” of the penalties and that the supervisor’s approval of the penalties was untimely because it occurred after the revenue agent had sent the letters.

The Tax Court (Judge Greaves) disagreed and granted the Service’s motion for partial summary judgment. The Tax Court’s prior decisions addressing section 6751(b), the court observed, including Belair Woods, provide that “supervisory approval is required no later than (1) the date the IRS issues the notice of deficiency, or, if earlier, (2) the date the IRS formally communicates to the taxpayer Exam’s determination to assert a penalty and notifies the taxpayer of his right to appeal that determination.” In this case, the court concluded,

[t]he offer letters . . . do not reflect an “initial determination” because they do not notify petitioners that Exam had completed its work. Rather than determining that petitioners are liable for penalties of specific dollar amounts, subject to review by Appeals or the Tax Court, each letter offers to settle penalties arising from the DAT transaction on certain terms, including substatutory penalty rates, which are based not on an audit but on Announcement 2005-80.

Because the offer letters did not constitute an initial determination of the penalties, the court reasoned, section 6751(b)(1) did not require supervisory approval of the penalties before the offer letters were sent. The court also rejected the taxpayers’ argument that the supervisory approval requirement was not met because the supervisor who approved the penalties was an acting supervisor and therefore provided “meaningful review” of the penalties.

7. The sole shareholder of a captive insurance company organized as an S corporation escaped penalties because the Service failed to comply with the supervisory approval requirement of section 6751(b).

The issue in Oropeza v. Commissioner was whether the Service was precluded from asserting penalties because it had failed to comply with the requirement of section 6751(b)(1) that the initial determination of the assessment of a penalty be “personally approved (in writing) by the immediate supervisor of the individual making such determination.” The taxpayer was the sole shareholder of a micro-captive insurance company organized as a Subchapter S corporation. The limitations period for assessment of tax for 2011 was nearing expiration, and the taxpayer would not agree to extend it. Accordingly, on January 14, 2015, the Service revenue agent auditing the taxpayer’s 2011 return sent petitioner a Letter 5153 along with the revenue agent’s report on Form 4549-A, Income Tax Discrepancy Adjustments. The revenue agent’s report proposed to increase the taxpayer’s distributive share of income from the S corporation by $1.25 million and his reported capital gain by $650,000.

The report also asserted a 20% accuracy-related penalty under section 6662(a). The report did not state the specific basis for the penalty but instead stated that it was based on a substantial underpayment of tax “attributable to one or more of” four possible grounds: (1) negligence; (2) substantial understatement of income tax; (3) substantial valuation misstatement (overstatement); or (4) transaction lacking economic substance. On January 29, 2015, the revenue agent’s supervisor signed a Civil Penalty Approval Form that authorized the assertion of a 20% penalty for substantial understatement of income tax. In a subsequent memorandum prepared for a Service Chief Counsel attorney and dated May 1, 2015, the revenue agent recommended a 40% penalty pursuant to section 6662(i) for a nondisclosed economic substance transaction based on the taxpayer’s failure to disclose the captive insurance arrangement on either the S corporation’s return or his personal return. The revenue agent’s supervisor signed the memorandum on an unspecified date. The Service issued a notice of deficiency on May 6, 2015, in response to which the taxpayer filed a petition in the Tax Court. The notice of deficiency asserted a 40% penalty under section 6662(i) for a nondisclosed economic substance transaction or, in the alternative, a 20% penalty based on either negligence or substantial understatement of income tax.

In the Tax Court, the Service conceded that it had not obtained supervisory approval of the negligence penalty. The Tax Court (Judge Lauber) held that the Service was precluded from asserting both the 20% penalty based on substantial understatement of income tax or the 40% penalty for a nondisclosed economic substance transaction. With respect to the 20% penalty, the court relied on its prior decision in Belair Woods, in which the court had held that the initial determination of a penalty occurs in the document through which the Service Examination Division notifies the taxpayer in writing that the examination is complete and a decision to assert penalties has been made. In this case, the court held, the initial determination of the penalty was the Letter 5153 that was mailed to the taxpayer on January 14, 2015. Because the required supervisory approval of that penalty did not occur until January 29, 2015, the approval was untimely.

With respect to the 40% penalty, the parties agreed that the first notification to the taxpayer was the notice of deficiency that was issued on May 6, 2015. The Service argued that this penalty received the required supervisory approval when the revenue agent’s supervisor signed the revenue agent’s memorandum dated May 1, 2015, to the Service Chief Counsel attorney. The court first concluded that section 6662(i) does not impose a distinct penalty, but instead “increases the rate of the penalty imposed by section 6662(a) and (b)(6) for engaging in a transaction lacking economic substance.” The relevant questions therefore became whether the revenue agent’s report had asserted a penalty under section 6662(a) and (b)(6) that received the required supervisory approval and, if not, whether the Service can satisfy the section 6751(b) supervisory approval requirement by later determining that section 6662(i) applies because the transaction was not disclosed on the return. The court held that the “boilerplate text” of the Letter 5153 sent to the taxpayer on January 14, 2015, did assert a penalty under section 6662(a) and (b)(6) for engaging in a transaction lacking economic substance but that the revenue agent’s supervisor had not timely approved this penalty because the supervisor did not sign the Civil Penalty Approval Form until January 29, 2015.

The court then turned to the question, which it regarded as one of first impression, of whether the Service can satisfy the section 6751(b) supervisory approval requirement by later determining that section 6662(i) applies because a transaction was not disclosed on the return. The court reviewed the text and legislative history of section 6662 and concluded that the 40% penalty of section 6662(i) is an enhancement of the 20% penalty imposed by section 6662(a) and (b)(6) in situations in which the taxpayer has failed to disclose on the return a transaction lacking economic substance. The court viewed the enhancement as analogous to an “aggravating factor” in the area of criminal law that justifies a harsher penalty for a basic offense. Because the section 6662(i) penalty is an enhancement of the basic penalty imposed by section 6662(a) and (b)(6) and because the Service had failed to obtain supervisory approval of the basic penalty, the court held the Service was precluded from asserting the 40% enhancement of the penalty.

8. Updated instructions on how to rat yourself out.

Revenue Procedure 2020-54 updated Revenue Procedure 2019-42. Revenue Procedure 2020-54 “identifies circumstances under which the disclosure on a taxpayer’s income tax return with respect to an item or a position is adequate for the purpose of reducing the understatement of income tax under section 6662(d) . . . (relating to the substantial understatement aspect of the accuracy-related penalty), and for the purpose of avoiding the tax return preparer penalty under section 6694(a) (relating to understatements due to unreasonable positions) . . . .” There have been no substantive changes. The Revenue Procedure does not apply with respect to any other penalty provisions, including section 6662(b)(1) accuracy-related penalties. “If this revenue procedure does not include an item or position, disclosure is adequate with respect to that item only if made on a properly completed Form 8275 or Form 8275-R, as appropriate, attached to the return for the year or to a qualified amended return.” A corporation’s complete and accurate disclosure of a tax position on the appropriate year’s Schedule UTP, Uncertain Tax Position Statement, is treated as if the corporation had filed a Form 8275 or Form 8275-R regarding the tax position. The Revenue Procedure “applies to any income tax return filed on a 2020 tax form for a taxable year beginning in 2020 and to any income tax return filed on a 2020 tax form in 2021 for a short taxable year beginning in 2021.”

B. Discovery: Summonses and FOIA

There were no significant developments regarding this topic during 2020.

C. Litigation Costs

There were no significant developments regarding this topic during 2020.

D. Statutory Notice of Deficiency

1. ♪♫If you want my love, leave your name and address . . . . ♫♪ A notice of deficiency mailed to the address on the taxpayers’ tax return was mailed to the taxpayers’ last known address despite their filing of a power of attorney and a request for an extension using their new address.

Section 6212(b)(1) provides that a notice of deficiency in respect of a tax imposed by subtitle A shall be sufficient if “mailed to the taxpayer at his last known address.” For this purpose, a taxpayer’s last known address is “the address that appears on the taxpayer’s most recently filed and properly processed Federal tax return, unless the [Service] is given clear and concise notification of a different address.” The taxpayers in Gregory v. Commissioner, a married couple, moved from Jersey City, New Jersey, to Rutherford, New Jersey, on June 30, 2015. They filed their 2014 federal income tax return on October 15, 2015. The return incorrectly reflected their old Jersey City address. In November 2015, a power of attorney on Form 2848 was submitted to the Service that had their new Rutherford address. In April 2016, they filed a request for an automatic extension of time to file their 2015 federal income tax return on Form 4868 that also had their new Rutherford address. The Service sent a notice of deficiency with respect to tax year 2014 by certified mail to the taxpayers’ old Jersey City address on October 13, 2016. The U.S. Postal Service returned the notice of deficiency to the Service as unclaimed; the taxpayers never received it. The taxpayers first became aware of the notice of deficiency on January 17, 2017, and, in response, filed a petition in the Tax Court that same day. The Service moved to dismiss for lack of jurisdiction because the taxpayers had filed their petition late (outside the 90-day time period of section 6213(a)), and the taxpayers moved to dismiss for lack of jurisdiction on the ground that the petition had not been mailed to their last known address and therefore was invalid.

a. The Tax Court’s decision. The Tax Court (Judge Buch) held that the notice of deficiency had been mailed to the taxpayers’ last known address and granted the government’s motion to dismiss. The court first reasoned that neither the Form 2848 nor the Form 4868 submitted by the taxpayers was a “return” within the meaning of the last known address rule of Regulation section 301.6212-2(a). These forms, the court reasoned, are not returns under the four-part test of Beard v. Commissioner. Further, the court explained, Regulation section 301.6212-2(a) provides that additional information on what constitutes a return for purposes of the last known address rule can be found in revenue procedures published by the Service. Revenue Procedure 2010-16 specifically provides that Forms 2848 and 4868 are not returns for this purpose.

The court next concluded that the Forms 2848 and 4868 submitted by the taxpayers had not provided the Service with clear and concise notification of their new address. The instructions to both forms, the court reasoned, explicitly provide that the forms will not update a taxpayer’s address of record with the Service. That these forms do not constitute clear and concise notification of a new address, the court explained, is implicit in Revenue Procedure 2010-16, which provides that Forms 2848 and 4868 are not returns and that they “will not be used to update the taxpayer’s address of record.”

Finally, the court distinguished earlier decisions holding that a Form 2848 filed with the Service does give clear and concise notification of a new address. The court reasoned that the previous decisions were based on prior versions of Form 2848 and that “[s]ince 2004 the Commissioner has issued clear guidance informing taxpayers of what actions will and will not change their last known address with the Commissioner.”

b. The Service knew or should have known of the taxpayers’ new address, says the Third Circuit. The taxpayers in Gregory appealed the Tax Court’s decision to the Court of Appeals for the Third Circuit, the same court that had held that a prior version of Form 2848 did provide clear and concise notification of a taxpayer’s new address. In a brief opinion by Judge Roth, the Third Circuit vacated and remanded the case to the Tax Court. The court first noted that “Form 8822 [the Service’s change-of-address form] has not been consistently required to notify the IRS of an address change.” The court observed that the Tax Court twice had concluded that a power of attorney on Form 2848 filed with the Service did provide the Service with clear and concise notification of a new address. Curiously, the court did not cite its own earlier decision that had reached the same conclusion. The court then emphasized that, “[i]n determining whether the IRS had clear and concise notification of an address change, the proper inquiry is what the IRS knew or should have known.” In this case, the court noted, before the Service issued the notice of deficiency in question, the taxpayers’ CPA had informed the Service agent conducting the audit of the taxpayers’ return that the taxpayers had moved. Based on this actual notice to the Service, combined with the filing of both an extension request on Form 4868 and a power of attorney on Form 2848, both of which reflected the taxpayers’ new address, the court concluded that “the IRS knew or should have known that the Gregorys had changed addresses.”

The Third Circuit’s opinion is not entirely clear as to the basis of the court’s decision. The court’s opinion emphasizes that the taxpayers’ CPA directly informed the Service agent conducting the audit that the taxpayers had moved, but the opinion also relies on the extension request and power of attorney forms filed by the taxpayers. By failing to mention its own earlier decision that a prior version of Form 2848 did provide clear and concise notification of a taxpayer’s new address, the court’s opinion does not directly address the question whether a current Form 2848, by itself, would operate as clear and concise notification of a new address. In light of this uncertainty, advisors whose clients move should either counsel clients to file Form 8822, the Service’s change-of-address form, or file Form 8822 on their behalf.

E. Statute of Limitations

1. Based upon a credible declaration from the taxpayer’s attorney, the Tax Court has held that a petition sent in an envelope that had no postmark was timely filed even though it arrived after the 90-day period for filing.

In general, under section 6213(a), a taxpayer must petition the Tax Court within 90 days after the date the notice of deficiency is mailed. There is, however, a “timely mailed timely filed” rule which provides that if a document is delivered by U.S. mail, it is deemed to be timely mailed (and, therefore, timely filed) if the envelope is properly addressed, postage is prepaid, and the postmark date on the envelope falls on or before the end of the 90-day period for mailing the petition. If all of these conditions are met, then the date of the postmark is deemed to be the date of delivery and date of filing. In Seely v. Commissioner, the Seelys’ attorney prepared a petition and mailed it to the Tax Court. The Seelys and the Service agreed that all the conditions were met except there was no postmark on the envelope containing the petition. The Seelys’ 90-day period for filing the petition expired on June 26, 2017 (a weekday), but the Tax Court received the petition on July 17, 2017, a number of days after the expiration of the 90-day period. The Service filed a motion to dismiss for lack of jurisdiction on the ground that the petition was not timely filed. The Seelys argued that their petition was timely filed because their attorney mailed the petition to the Tax Court on June 22, 2017, before the 90-day period expired. In support of their argument, the Seelys supplied a declaration from their attorney under penalty of perjury indicating that on June 22, 2017, he deposited the petition into a U.S. mailbox.

While regulations prescribe specific rules for postmarks, they provide no rules regarding the situation where the envelope has no postmark whatsoever. In holding in favor of the Seelys, the Tax Court followed its prior precedents indicating that where the postmark is illegible, extrinsic evidence is allowed to ascertain the mailing date. The issue, therefore, narrowly turned on whether the Seelys presented convincing evidence establishing that they timely mailed their petition. The Service argued that it takes only 8 to 15 days for the U.S. Postal Service to deliver an item of mail to Washington D.C. Further, because the petition arrived at the Tax Court (16 as opposed to 15 days) later than expected, the Service argued, the lawyer’s declaration was not credible. Judge Vasquez disagreed that the attorney’s declaration was not convincing evidence due in part to the fact that the Fourth of July holiday fell between the date of the alleged mailing and the delivery date. On the basis of the attorney’s sworn declaration and of the court’s judicial notice of the Fourth of July holiday, the court concluded that, more likely than not, the petition was mailed on June 22, 2017, before the 90-day period had expired. Accordingly, the Service’s motion to dismiss for lack of jurisdiction was denied.

2. Up in Smoke: The period for filing petitions in the Tax Court had expired for these medical marijuana dispensaries. The Lesson: For God’s sake, when you are filing the petition on the last possible day, use registered or certified mail or make sure you are using a designated private delivery service.

In two cases, one involving Organic Cannabis Foundation, LLC, a limited liability company, and the other involving Northern California Small Business Assistants, Inc., a corporation, the Service issued notices of deficiency. Both taxpayers operated or held interests in medical marijuana dispensaries in California. The notices of deficiency disallowed deductions under section 280E, which disallows any deduction or credit otherwise allowable if such amount is paid or incurred in connection with a trade or business “if such trade or business (or the activities which comprise such trade or business) consists of trafficking in controlled substances . . . .”

The last day for filing petitions in the Tax Court seeking redeterminations of the deficiencies was April 22, 2015. The law firm representing the taxpayers filed petitions in the Tax Court by sending them on April 21, 2015, using Federal Express’s (FedEx) “First Overnight” delivery service, which should have resulted in the earliest possible delivery on April 22. The petitions, however, were not delivered by Federal Express to the Tax Court until April 23, 2015. The delivery notes made by the Federal Express driver indicated that he or she had attempted delivery on April 22 but “could not get to the door for some plausible reason like construction, or some sort of police action (perhaps the [FedEx] representative said the access was blocked off because of a safety threat).” The Tax Court granted the government’s motion to dismiss for lack of jurisdiction because the taxpayers had not filed the petitions within the 90-day period prescribed by section 6213(a).

On appeal, the Ninth Circuit affirmed the Tax Court’s decision. In an opinion by Judge Collins, the court rejected four arguments made by the taxpayers. First, the taxpayers argued that the filing deadline had been extended to April 23 because the Tax Court clerk’s office was inaccessible on April 22, the last day for filing. The court noted that in a prior opinion, Guralnik v. Commissioner, the Tax Court had concluded that a petition filed on the day after the last day for filing was timely by virtue of Federal Rule of Civil Procedure 6(a)(3)(A), which provides that, if the clerk’s office is inaccessible on the last day for filing, then the time for filing is extended to the first day that is not a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday on which the clerk’s office is accessible. In Guralnik, the Tax Court had been closed due to a snowstorm on the last day for filing the petition. In this case, the Ninth Circuit concluded, the Tax Court clerk’s office was not inaccessible on April 22. According to the court, “[a] temporary obstacle that is encountered earlier in the day does not, without more, render the clerk’s office ‘inaccessible’ on ‘the last day for filing.’” For nonelectronic filings such as the petitions in this case, the court held, “a clerk’s office is ‘inaccessible’ on the ‘last day’ of a filing period only if the office cannot practicably be accessed for delivery of documents during a sufficient period of time up to and including the point at which ‘the clerk’s office is scheduled to close.’”

Second, the taxpayers argued that their petitions were timely filed pursuant to the timely-mailed-is-timely-filed rule of section 7502(a). Section 7502(a) provides that the postmark stamped on the cover in which a return, claim, or other document is mailed is deemed to be the date of delivery if the return or claim (1) is deposited in the mail in the United States within the time prescribed for filing in a properly addressed, postage-prepaid envelope or other appropriate wrapper and bears a postmark date that falls within the time prescribed for filing and (2) is delivered by U.S. mail after the prescribed time for filing to the agency with which it is required to be filed. This rule is extended by section 7502(f) to any document sent through a “designated delivery service,” defined in 7502(f)(2) as any delivery service that meets certain requirements and is provided by a trade or business if the service is designated for this purpose by the Secretary of the Treasury. At the time the petitions in this case were filed, the Service had specified which delivery services were designated private delivery services in Notice 2004-83. Although Notice 2004-83 listed several FedEx services as designated private delivery services, FedEx “First Overnight” was not among them. Accordingly, the court held, the taxpayers could not rely on section 7502(a) to establish that their petitions had been timely filed and the Tax Court had correctly dismissed the cases for lack of jurisdiction.

Third, the taxpayers argued that the 90-day period specified in section 6213(a) for filing a petition in the Tax Court seeking redetermination of a deficiency is subject to equitable exceptions such as equitable tolling. The court, however, adhered to controlling Ninth Circuit precedent in which the court previously had held that this 90-day period is jurisdictional and not subject to equitable exceptions. The court rejected the taxpayers’ argument that recent decisions of the U.S. Supreme Court addressing when statutory deadlines should be deemed jurisdictional had undermined the Ninth Circuit’s settled precedent.

Fourth, Organic Cannabis Foundation argued that the notice of deficiency issued by the Service was invalid because it had not been mailed to the taxpayer’s last known address as required by section 6212(b)(1). The court rejected this argument because, although the address to which the notice had been mailed omitted the taxpayer’s P.O. Box number, the nine-digit zip code included in the address indicated both that it was to be delivered to a P.O. Box and the specific number of the box to which it was addressed.

3. Tax Court holds that a rejected e-filed return still triggers the three-year limitations period of section 6501(a) on assessment of tax.

In a unanimous, reviewed opinion by Judge Greaves in Fowler v. Commissioner, the Tax Court has addressed whether an electronically filed return that was rejected for electronic filing triggered the section 6501(a) three-year limitations period on assessment of tax. The Service rejected the return for lack of an Identity Protection Personal Identification Number (IP PIN). An IP PIN is a six-digit number assigned to eligible individuals that must be used on a tax return in addition to the individual’s Social Security Number to verify the individual’s identity. Mr. Fowler properly filed to extend the due date of his 2013 tax return on Form 1040 until October 15, 2014. His CPA prepared and e-signed Mr. Fowler’s Form 1040 with a Practitioner Personal Identification Number. The CPA electronically transmitted or “e-filed” Mr. Fowler’s return with the Service on October 15, 2014. On the same day, the Service rejected the e-filed return for failure to include an IP PIN. Three days later, on October 28, 2014, the CPA again electronically submitted Mr. Fowler’s return and also sent via the U.S. Postal Service a paper version of the return, which was signed for as received by the Service.

Nevertheless, in December 2014 Mr. Fowler received a notification letter indicating that the Service had not received his return. On April 30, 2015, the CPA responded by again electronically refiling Mr. Fowler’s 2013 return with a proper IP PIN. This return was accepted by the Service on the same day. On April 5, 2018, the Service issued a notice of deficiency to Mr. Fowler in relation to his 2013 return, and he filed a petition in the Tax Court raising the three-year limitations period on assessment of tax in section 6501(a) as a defense.

The narrow question before the court was whether either the first e-filed return or the paper tax return, both submitted in October 2014, triggered the running of the section 6501(a) three-year limitations period. The Service generally is required to assess tax within a three-year period that begins when a return is filed. The filing of a return starts the running of this limitations period if the return was (1) “properly filed” and (2) a “required return.”

a. Was Mr. Fowler’s 2013 Form 1040 a “required return”? Judge Greaves first addressed whether Mr. Fowler’s 2013 Form 1040 was a “required return” under the test applied by the court in Beard v. Commissioner. Beard requires that “(1) the document purport to be a return and provide sufficient data to calculate tax liability, (2) the taxpayer make an honest and reasonable attempt to satisfy the requirements of the tax law, and (3) the taxpayer execute the document under penalties of perjury.” Mr. Fowler’s return readily met the first element without much question. With respect to the second element, Judge Greaves concluded that Mr. Fowler’s return was an honest and reasonable attempt to comply with the law because it included the taxpayer’s income, deductions, exemptions, and credits along with supporting documentation. The failure to include a proper IP PIN on the original October 2014 filings was not sufficient to disqualify the return as an honest and reasonable attempt to comply. Judge Greaves reasoned that this is especially true where the Service does not explain why the Service rejects an e-filed return but not a paper return without an IP PIN.

The third element of the Beard test requires a taxpayer to sign or execute the return under penalties of perjury. The Service argued that the October 15 electronic submission failed to satisfy the signature requirement because it did not include an IP PIN. Judge Greaves found this argument unpersuasive because the IP PIN is not a requirement in relation to what constitutes a valid signature. The regulations require only that each individual “shall sign” his or her return. The regulations further direct that a return preparer “electronically sign the return” consistent with guidance provided by the Service. By including his practitioner PIN on the e-filed return, Mr. Fowler’s CPA complied with the Service’s guidance on electronic return signatures. Just because the Service’s software rejects an e-filed return for lack of an IP PIN, the court concluded, does not mean that an IP PIN is part of the signature requirement. Thus, because there was no Service guidance that characterized an IP PIN as part of the signature requirement, Mr. Fowler’s return met the third element of the Beard test. Mr. Fowler’s Form 1040 therefore was a “required return.”

b. Was Mr. Fowler’s Form 1040 a “properly filed” return? Whether a return is “properly filed” does not depend upon whether the Service is informed or what the Service received and understood. Rather, a return is properly filed when the taxpayer’s mode of filing complies with the prescribed filing requirements. Delivery to the correct Service office is when a return is “filed.” A return that is delivered either physically through the U.S. Postal Service or electronically qualifies as “filed” even if the Service does not accept the return. Judge Greaves reasoned that Mr. Fowler’s return was properly filed because his CPA represented that he submitted the return on behalf of Mr. Fowler and he received a 20-digit submission ID as confirmation from the Service. Moreover, the Service acknowledged Mr. Fowler’s return was submitted on October 15.

c. Holding & Afterthoughts. Judge Greaves held that Mr. Fowler had satisfied the requirements for triggering the three-year limitations period on assessment set forth in section 6501(a). Because the limitations had been triggered by the October 2014 filing, the limitations period had expired before the Service issued the notice of deficiency on April 5, 2018. The opinion contains a fair amount of description regarding the machinations of the Service’s software and how the software operates to reject returns. The opinion might be narrowly construed to stand for the proposition that the Service’s rejection of an e-filed return for lack of an IP PIN will not prevent the section 6501(a) limitations from beginning to run. However, Judge Greaves also noted that a signature serves an authentication function and that Service guidance indicates that an element other than just an e-signature may be needed to authenticate an electronically filed return. The IP PIN would appear to have been what the Service needed to distinguish between the true taxpayer and a fraudulent taxpayer. By strictly applying the elements of Beard to conclude it was a properly filed return, the court may be putting the Service in the untenable position of forfeiting the protection of the statute of limitations in an effort to protect taxpayers from fraud. Finally, the opinion might also be broadly interpreted to support the proposition that where an e-filed return is rejected for any number of errors on the return, the limitations period on assessment continues to run.

4. Forms 1040 and 1099 filed by the taxpayer constituted a “return” that started the running of the limitations period on assessment of amounts the taxpayer failed to backup withhold from payments made to contractors, says the Fifth Circuit. Therefore, the Service was barred from assessing $1.2 million.

In Quezada v. United States (In re Quezada), the taxpayer, a debtor in bankruptcy proceedings, was a stone mason who hired subcontractors that provided their labor. For the years 2005 through 2008, he filed Forms 1099 to report the payments he made to the individuals he hired. Many of these Forms 1099, however, did not have taxpayer identification numbers (TINs) because the individuals had failed to provide them. The failure of these individuals to provide their TINs triggered an obligation on the part of the taxpayer under section 3406(a) to withhold a flat rate for all payments made to these individuals and to remit the withheld amounts to the Service. This is commonly referred to as “backup withholding.” Under Regulation section 31.6011(a)-4(b), the taxpayer was required to file a return on Form 945 to report the amounts withheld through backup withholding. The taxpayer failed to withhold the required amounts and did not file Form 945.

In 2014, more than three years after the taxpayer had filed Forms 1099 and his individual tax return on Form 1040 for 2008, the last year at issue, the Service assessed approximately $1.2 million for the amounts the taxpayer had failed to withhold. The taxpayer subsequently filed a petition in bankruptcy, and the Service filed a proof of claim in the bankruptcy proceeding. The taxpayer asserted that the Service was barred from assessing the amounts in question by the section 6501(a) limitations period on assessment of tax. Section 6501(a) generally requires the Service to assess tax within a three-year period that begins when a return is filed. The issue was whether the Forms 1099 and Forms 1040 that the taxpayer filed for the years in question constituted a “return” that triggered the running of the section 6501(a) three-year limitations period. The Service asserted that only Form 945, the return required by the relevant regulations, could be a “return” for this purpose and that, since the taxpayer had not filed Forms 945, the three-year limitations period on assessment never began to run.

In an opinion by Judge Jolly, the Fifth Circuit agreed with the taxpayer. In reaching its conclusion, the court rejected the government’s argument that the Supreme Court’s decision in Commissioner v. Lane-Wells Co. requires a taxpayer to file the return designated for the tax liability in question in order to start the running of the three-year limitations period. According to the Fifth Circuit, several other Circuit Courts of Appeal—including the Second, Sixth, Ninth, Eleventh, and Federal Circuits—have concluded that a form other than the one prescribed in regulations can constitute a “return” for this purpose. Instead, the court concluded, Lane-Wells stands for the following proposition: “‘the return’ is filed, and the limitations clock begins to tick, when the taxpayer files a return that contains data sufficient (1) to show that the taxpayer is liable for the tax at issue and (2) to calculate the extent of the liability.”

The Forms 1040 and 1099 filed by the taxpayer, the court concluded, met both of these requirements. The first requirement (showing that the taxpayer was liable for the tax) was met because he had filed Forms 1099 that did not contain TINs, which indicated that he was liable for backup withholding. The second requirement (allowing calculation of tax liability) was met because the Forms 1099 filed without TINs indicated that the taxpayer was liable for backup withholding at the statutory flat rate applied to the amount paid, which was, in fact, how the Service had calculated his liability for backup withholding. Because the Forms 1040 and 1099 filed by the taxpayer constituted “returns” that triggered the running of the section 6501(a) three-year limitations period on assessment, the Service was barred from assessing the $1.2 million in backup withholding that the taxpayer had failed to withhold and remit.

F. Liens and Collections

1. The taxpayers’ attempt to pay their federal tax liability went awry when the Service levied on the bank account on which their check was drawn and applied the proceeds to other tax years. Following a CDP hearing, the appropriate standard of review is for abuse of discretion, says the Tax Court.

In Melasky v. Commissioner (Melasky I), the taxpayers hand delivered to the Service at the Service’s office in Houston a check for $18,000 and requested that the check be applied against their 2009 federal income tax liability. The Service accepted the check and initially applied it as the taxpayers had requested. A few days later, however, the Service levied against the bank account on which the check had been drawn and applied the proceeds of the levy to an earlier tax year. The effect of the levy was that the taxpayers’ check bounced. The Service therefore reversed the payment against the 2009 liability and charged a $360 penalty for writing a bad check.

On the same day as the levy, the Service issued to the taxpayers a final notice of intent to levy with respect to certain years, including 2009. In response, the taxpayers requested a CDP hearing. The Service’s settlement officer issued a notice of determination concluding that the proceeds of the levy constituted an involuntary payment, rather than a voluntary payment, and that the Service therefore was free to apply the payment as it wished. In response to the notice of determination, the taxpayers filed a petition in the Tax Court.

The Tax Court (Judge Holmes) held that the appropriate standard of review in the Tax Court was for abuse of discretion. In its earlier decision, Goza v. Commissioner, the court had established that the standard of review in a CDP case is normally for abuse of discretion but that the standard of review is de novo when the underlying tax liability is appropriately before the court. The parties agreed that the standard of review for the 2009 tax year was de novo because the taxpayers contended that they had no tax liability for that year. Nevertheless, the court held that the standard of review was for abuse of discretion because the taxpayers were not challenging the underlying tax liability but rather were challenging whether the Service properly applied a payment:

The question for the Melaskys’ 2009 tax year is about whether the IRS properly applied a check. A question about whether the IRS properly credited a payment is not a challenge to a tax liability; i.e., the amount of tax imposed by the Code for a particular year. It is instead a question of whether the liability remains unpaid. Section 6330(c)(2)(A) allows a taxpayer to raise at a CDP hearing “any relevant issue relating to the unpaid tax,” whereas section 6330(c)(2)(B) says a taxpayer may challenge “the existence or amount of the underlying tax liability” . . . only if he didn’t receive a notice of deficiency or otherwise have an opportunity to do so . . . We therefore hold here that the Melaskys aren’t challenging their underlying liability for 2009.

a. A dishonored check is not a voluntary payment of tax and therefore the Service need not apply the tendered check as directed by the taxpayer, even when the check is dishonored because a Service levy depleted the funds in the bank account. In Melasky v. Commissioner (Melasky II), a separate, reviewed opinion (9–2–2) by Judge Thornton involving the same facts as in Melasky I, discussed above, the Tax Court considered whether it was an abuse of discretion for the Service to decide (1) not to apply against the taxpayers’ 2009 income tax liability the proceeds of the levy on their bank account and (2) to reject the taxpayers’ proposed installment agreement. With respect to application of the levy proceeds, the court noted that the Service’s policy is to apply voluntary payments as directed by the taxpayer but that involuntary payments generally may be applied against whatever unpaid tax liabilities the Service chooses. The court rejected the taxpayers’ argument that the check for $18,000 they hand delivered to the Service’s office in Houston should be treated as a voluntary payment and therefore applied to 2009 as the taxpayers had directed. A payment by check, the court reasoned, is a conditional payment and is subject to the condition subsequent that the check be paid when presented to the drawee (the bank). If the condition subsequent is fulfilled, the court explained, “the payment generally becomes absolute and is deemed to relate back to the time when the check was provided.” According to the court, acceptance of a check is not an absolute payment in the absence of an agreement that the check will be treated as an absolute payment.

In this case, because the check was not honored, and there was no agreement that acceptance of the check would be treated as an absolute payment, the check was not a voluntary payment. The court rejected the taxpayers’ argument that, because the Service’s levy on the bank account led to the check being dishonored, a different result was warranted. It was not unreasonable or inappropriate, the court stated, for the Service to levy after approximately 15 years of collection activity. The proceeds of the levy were an involuntary payment that the Service could apply as it chose. With respect to the second issue, the court held that it was not an abuse of discretion for the Service to reject the taxpayers’ proposed partial-pay installment agreement.

(i) Concurring opinion of Judge Lauber. A concurring opinion by Judge Lauber (joined by Judges Thornton, Marvel, Gustafson, Kerrigan, Buch, Nega, Pugh, and Ashford) is highly critical of and responds to certain arguments in the dissenting opinion by Judge Holmes. Generally, the concurring opinion takes the position that the taxpayers did not raise in the CDP hearing the argument that the $18,000 check, although dishonored, should be treated as a voluntary payment, and therefore “[t]he [settlement officer] did not commit legal error by failing to address an argument petitioners did not make.”

(ii) Concurring opinion of Judges Buch and Pugh. A concurring opinion by Judges Buch and Pugh (joined by Judges Gustafson and Paris) notes that Revenue Procedure 2002-26 requires the Service to apply a voluntary payment as directed by the taxpayer and that the court’s opinion does not “foreclose finding an abuse of discretion if evidence were to show that, through negligence or malfeasance, the Commissioner circumvented his own revenue procedure for designating payments.”

(iii) Dissenting opinion of Judge Holmes. Judge Holmes wrote a lengthy dissenting opinion that Judge Morrison joined. Judge Holmes agreed that the settlement officer did not abuse his discretion in rejecting the taxpayers’ proposed installment agreement, although for different reasons than those set forth in the court’s opinion. Judge Holmes dissented with respect to the treatment of the $18,000 dishonored check. According to the dissenting opinion, the check was a voluntary payment that the Service should have applied as directed by the taxpayers.

b. Agreeing with the Tax Court, the Fifth Circuit reiterates that if other taxpayers do not want to run the same bounced-check risk as the Melaskys, they should use a certified check or money order when making designated, voluntary payments for past years’ tax liabilities. The Fifth Circuit, in an opinion by Judge Owen, agreed with the Tax Court’s prior decisions that the taxpayer’s payment was “involuntary” and that the Service did not abuse its discretion. The Fifth Circuit declined to adopt an “equitable exception to the normal rules” regarding voluntary and involuntary tax payments. According to the Fifth Circuit, the Melaskys had notice of the Service’s intent to levy issued to them in 2001, long before the Service’s actual levy in 2009. Therefore, quoting language from the concurring opinion of Judges Buch and Pugh, the Fifth Circuit reasoned that “[b]y choosing . . . a personal check rather than a certified check or money order, the Melaskys ran [the] risk” that the Service would levy on their bank accounts before the check representing their voluntary payment was presented to the bank by the Service.

2. Congress has codified the waiver of fees for low-income taxpayers submitting an offer in compromise.

Generally, under section 7122(c)(1)(A), a taxpayer making a lump-sum offer in compromise must submit with the offer a payment of 20% of the amount offered. A taxpayer also must pay a user fee for processing the offer in compromise. Through administrative guidance, the up-front partial payment and the user fee are waived for low-income taxpayers. The Taxpayer First Act amends section 7122(c) by adding new section 7122(c)(3), which codifies these waivers. Section 7122(c)(3) provides that the up-front partial payment and user fee do not apply to an offer in compromise submitted by a taxpayer whose adjusted gross income, for the most recent taxable year for which adjusted gross income is available, does not exceed 250% of the applicable poverty level. This change applies to offers in compromise submitted after July 1, 2019, the date of enactment.

a. Final Regulations increase the user fee for processing an offer in compromise by ten percent. The Treasury Department and the Service have finalized, with some changes, Proposed Regulations that set the user fees for processing an offer in compromise. Prior to these Regulations, the general user fee for an offer in compromise was $186. However, no fee was charged for an offer in compromise based solely on doubt as to liability or if the taxpayer was a low-income taxpayer (defined as a taxpayer who has income at or below 250% of the federal poverty guidelines). The Proposed Regulations would have increased the general fee for an offer in compromise to $300 but did not propose a change for offers in compromise based on doubt as to liability or those submitted by low-income taxpayers. Since the Proposed Regulations were issued, Congress codified the waiver of the user fee for low-income taxpayers through amendments to section 7122(c)(3) that apply to offers in compromise submitted after July 1, 2019. The final Regulations increase the general user fee for processing an offer in compromise to $205, which is a ten-percent increase. This fee applies to offers in compromise submitted on or after April 27, 2020. The final Regulations continue to waive the user fee for offers in compromise based solely on doubt as to liability. They also provide a waiver of the user fee for low-income taxpayers that is consistent with amended section 7122(c)(3). The Preamble to the final Regulations provides a great amount of detail on how the increased user fee was determined, including the cost of the services provided.

3. The Government may enforce a tax lien in Federal Court and sell a taxpayer’s property notwithstanding the taxpayer’s right to redemption under state law.

Utah state law allows the owner of real property to redeem or purchase back foreclosed property that has a mortgage debt associated with it. At common law, the property owner’s equitable right of redemption ended upon foreclosure. In contrast, Utah law provides a statutory right to redeem after foreclosure. The general policy behind redemption is to protect the property holder’s right to redeem the property to insure against a foreclosure sale that is well below fair market value. Carving out a federal exception to this rule, the Tenth Circuit has held in Arlin Geophysical Co. v. United States that the Utah right of redemption does not apply to properties that are sold to satisfy a taxpayer’s federal tax lien. In general, under section 6321, when a taxpayer fails to pay a tax liability after receiving a notice and demand for payment, a statutory federal tax lien arises automatically by operation of law and attaches to all of the taxpayer’s property. After proper notification, the government can enforce such tax liens in a federal district court. Pursuant to section 7403, the federal district court in a tax lien foreclosure action may determine the merits of all claims on the property and decree a sale of the property. According to 28 U.S.C. section 2001(a), the sale must be transacted “upon such terms and conditions as the court directs.”

In Arlin Geophysical Co., the taxpayer, Mr. John Worthen, owed the United States more than $18 million. In connection with this liability, the Service filed a notice of federal tax lien that encumbered 15 properties owned by, among others, Arlin Geophysical Company (Arlin). Arlin was owned by Mr. Worthen and his wife. Arlin brought an action to quiet title to these properties. The federal district court held that Worthen was liable for the $18 million plus interest and held in favor of the government in relation to 13 of the 15 properties. Properties 14 and 15 remained at issue with the U.S. government, Fujilyte (a company owned by Worthen), and several others claiming rights to these two properties. Initially concluding that Worthen’s nominee, Arlin, held title to properties 14 and 15, the federal district court granted summary judgment to the government and ordered that the two properties be sold.

On appeal to the Tenth Circuit, Mr. Worthen argued that neither section 7403 nor 28 U.S.C. section 2001 expressly address Mr. Worthen’s redemption rights under Utah state law, and, therefore, he had a right of redemption in the properties. He further argued that this statutory silence supports the conclusion that Congress did not intend to usurp his state-created right of redemption and he should be able to redeem the properties. Stated in other words, he argued that the statutory silence indicates congressional intent that his state right of redemption should operate as the rule of decision governing the federal court.

The Tenth Circuit declined to adopt Mr. Worthen’s argument and instead affirmed the district court’s denial of Mr. Worthen’s right to redeem the property. The Tenth Circuit held that state-created rights are not the rules of decision to be applied by a federal court where the government seeks to enforce a federal tax lien. Rather, the question of whether a state-law right constitutes “property” or “rights to property” is a matter of federal law. According to the court, congressional silence in section 7403 and 28 U.S.C. section 2001 should be distinguished from other Code sections and federal procedural rules that specifically provide for redemption. For example, certain statutes provide that redemption is specifically authorized within a period of time after the sale of property subject to a lien or on which the government has levied. Thus, when Congress intends to provide redemption rights, it does so explicitly and not by silence.

In the current case, the court observed, redemption is not appropriate when taxpayers have had procedural protections such as the right to an administrative appeal of a lien under section 6326 and the right to a CDP hearing upon filing of the lien under section 6320(a). Statutes such as section 6331 provide redemption rights when a taxpayer is entitled to only summary administrative proceedings. In the area of federal tax liens, the court reasoned, procedures providing for the “punctilious” protection of the rights of the parties in interest—such as the requirement that interested third parties receive notice and be made parties to the action—adequately protect the interests of delinquent taxpayers. The court therefore was not persuaded that Congress’s silence regarding redemption rights in section 7403 should allow delinquent taxpayers to reclaim their properties through state-provided redemption rights. Accordingly, the court held, Mr. Worthen had no right to redeem property sold pursuant to section 7403 by a federal district court.

4. The Tax Court has held that audit reconsideration followed by a conference with IRS Appeals was a prior opportunity to challenge the taxpayers’ underlying tax liability and therefore they were barred by section 6330(c)(2)(b) from challenging the liability in a CDP hearing.

While Lander v. Commissioner is a factually complex case with a lengthy set of dates and numerous communications and meetings between the Service and the taxpayer, the salient elements revolve around two copies of the notice of deficiency (NOD) that were mailed by the Service to the taxpayers (a married couple) at their last known address and also to the address of the federal prison in which the husband, Mr. Lander, was incarcerated. The dispute began in April 2009, when the Landers filed a late initial 2005 income tax return and, shortly thereafter, an amended return. In July of 2011, the Service sent the Landers a letter notifying them of two adjustments that substantially increased their 2005 tax liability. Several weeks later, in August 2011, the Landers formally protested the adjustments and requested that the Service send any future questions or information to the address of the federal correctional institution where Mr. Lander was incarcerated.

The Service later informed the Landers that the large adjustments resulted in additions to tax and an accuracy-related penalty. The Service then sent the two copies of the NOD mentioned previously to the Landers’ home and the prison. However, in sending the NOD to each place, the Service examiner recorded the two certified mail numbers improperly. He switch the number for each parcel in the recorded documentation in the Service file. Regardless, each parcel was recorded by the U.S. Postal Service as having reached its destination. However, because Mr. Lander had been moved to another correctional facility and because Mrs. Lander had moved out of their home, the Landers did not receive either NOD.

In July 2012, the Service sent a notice and demand for payment. The taxpayers asked for reexamination of their tax liability. The Examination Division reaffirmed the adjustments to their tax liability, following which the taxpayers requested and received a conference with IRS Appeals, which abated a substantial amount of the originally assessed tax but continued to demand a portion of the originally assessed amounts. In January 2015, the Service sent the taxpayers a Notice of Federal Tax Lien Filing (NFTLF). The taxpayers timely requested a CDP hearing and maintained their assertion that the Service’s underlying assessment of tax was invalid because they did not receive either copy of the original NOD. Following the CDP hearing, IRS Appeals concluded that the NOD had been properly mailed to the last known address of the taxpayers and sustained the NFTLF.

Tax Court’s Analysis. The Tax Court addressed whether IRS Appeals erred in determining that the Landers were barred from challenging the assessed tax liability in the CDP hearing. Section 6330(c)(2)(B) permits a taxpayer to challenge the existence or amount of the taxpayer’s underlying tax liability in a CDP hearing only “if the person did not receive any NOD for such tax liability or did not otherwise have an opportunity to dispute such tax liability.” The court concluded that, although the Service had mailed the NOD to the taxpayers’ last known address and therefore was not barred by section 6213(a) from assessing the tax, the taxpayers had not received the NOD. However, the court declined to accept the Landers’ argument that they were not given an opportunity to dispute their tax liability. In reaching this conclusion, the Tax Court relied on its decision in Lewis v. Commissioner, in which the court reasoned:

[W]hile it is possible to interpret section 6330(c)(2)(B) to mean that every taxpayer is entitled to one opportunity for a precollection judicial review of an underlying liability, we find it unlikely that this was Congress’s intent. As we see it, if Congress had intended to preclude only those taxpayers who previously enjoyed the opportunity for judicial review of the underlying liability from raising the underlying liability again in a collection review proceeding, the statute would have been drafted to clearly so provide. The fact that Congress chose not to use such explicit language leads us to believe that Congress also intended to preclude taxpayers who were previously afforded a conference with the Appeals Office from raising the underlying liabilities again in a collection review hearing and before this Court.

Consistent with this reasoning, the Tax Court turned to whether the Landers were afforded a conference with IRS Appeals and whether they had an opportunity to dispute their tax liability. The court found that the Landers had received a post-assessment conference in the form of the audit reconsideration process. The reconsideration process provided for an independent review of the Landers’ underlying tax liability by IRS Appeals, which resulted in significantly reducing their tax liability. Under these circumstances, the court held that the Landers had a prior opportunity to dispute their tax liability within the meaning of section 6330(c)(2)(B) and that they were therefore barred from challenging the amount of their underlying liability.

5. Following a CDP hearing, the Tax Court held that it had jurisdiction to consider the taxpayer’s underlying tax liabilities because the taxpayer did not have a prior opportunity to contest them.

In Amanda Iris Gluck Irrevocable Trust v. Commissioner, the taxpayer, the Amanda Iris Gluck Trust (the Trust), was a direct and indirect partner in partnerships subject to the Tax Equity and Fiscal Responsibility Act of 1982 (TEFRA) audit procedures. The taxpayer allegedly omitted from its income $48.6 million of its distributive share of partnership income on its 2012 federal income tax return. Because this income allegedly was reflected on the Schedule K-1 received by the taxpayer and the taxpayer did not notify the Service of its inconsistent reporting of income by filing Form 8082 (Notice of Inconsistent Treatment or Administrative Audit Request), the Service was permitted to make a “computational adjustment” to the Trust’s 2012 income tax return to include the omitted income without issuing a NOD.

The adjustment had the effect of eliminating the net operating loss the Trust had reported for 2012, which also eliminated the NOL carryforwards the Trust had claimed in 2013–2015. The Service sent letters (Letter 4735) to the Trust indicating that it would have to pay the resulting liabilities and file for a refund. Upon the Trust’s failure to pay, the Service assessed liabilities for 2013–2015 and issued a notice of intent to levy. The Trust timely requested a CDP hearing for 2012–2015, even though the notice of levy related only to 2013–2015.

In the hearing, the IRS Settlement Officer (SO) confirmed that the 2013–2015 tax liabilities had been properly assessed but that the 2012 liability was not a subject of the levy notice. The SO therefore concluded he had no jurisdiction over the Trust’s 2012 year. The SO did not address the Trust’s underlying challenge of the liabilities imposed in relation to 2013–2015 in the hearing.

Following the CDP hearing, the Service issued a notice of determination sustaining the levy. The notice explained that, because the taxpayer could have paid the underlying tax liabilities and filed a claim for refund, it had neglected to take advantage of a prior opportunity to dispute its 2013–2015 liabilities and therefore was precluded from contesting the underlying liabilities in the CDP hearing. In response to the notice of determination, the taxpayer filed a petition in the Tax Court. The Service moved to dismiss as to 2012 and 2013 on the basis that 2012 was not properly before the court and the 2013 liability had been fully satisfied by tax credits applied from other years.

The Tax Court (Judge Lauber) initially held that it lacked jurisdiction to consider any challenge for 2012 because the Service had not issued a notice of determination in relation to that year. Further, because the Trust conceded that the 2013 tax liability was satisfied and there no longer existed any liability upon which collection action could be based for 2013, the court concluded that any proceeding in relation to 2013 was moot. Accordingly, the court granted the Service’s motion to dismiss as to 2012 for lack of jurisdiction and as to 2013 on grounds of mootness.

The remaining two years, 2014 and 2015, remained at issue for the court to decide whether the Service’s motion for summary judgment should be granted. Section 6330(c)(2)(B) permits a taxpayer to challenge the existence or amount of the taxpayer’s underlying tax liability in a CDP hearing only “if [the person] ‘did not receive any statutory NOD for such tax liability or did not otherwise have an opportunity to dispute such tax liability.’” The SO concluded that the taxpayer had such a prior opportunity because it could have paid the underlying tax liabilities and filed a claim for refund. The Service conceded that the SO’s reason for not considering the Trust’s underlying tax liabilities for 2014 and 2015 was erroneous.

Because the Trust did not have a prior opportunity to dispute its 2014 and 2015 liabilities, the court held that it had jurisdiction to review the liabilities for those years. The court noted that, although it generally lacks jurisdiction to review computational adjustments in deficiency cases, it does not have a similar lack of jurisdiction in CDP cases. The court referred to prior decisions in which it similarly had concluded that it had jurisdiction to review liabilities in CDP cases despite the fact that it would have no jurisdiction to review them in deficiency proceedings. The court concluded that the Trust had properly raised its underlying tax liabilities for 2014–2015 during the CDP hearing and that these liabilities were properly before the court. The taxpayer raised several arguments as to why it was entitled to the NOL carryforward deductions for 2014 and 2015. Because these arguments and the Service’s responses raised genuine issues of material fact, the court denied the Service’s motion for summary judgment.

6. The 30-day period for requesting review in the Tax Court of a notice of determination following a CDP hearing is jurisdictional and not subject to equitable tolling.

In Boechler, P.C. v. Commissioner, the Service had issued a notice of determination upholding a proposed collection action following a CDP hearing. The notice informed the taxpayer that, if he wished to contest the determination, he could do so by filing a petition with the Tax Court within a 30-day period beginning the day after the date of the letter. The Service mailed the notice on July 28, 2017. The 30-day period expired on August 27, 2017, but because this date fell on a Sunday, the taxpayer had until the following day, August 28, to file a petition. The taxpayer mailed his petition to the Tax Court on August 29, 2017, which was one day late. The Tax Court (Judge Carluzzo) granted the government’s motion to dismiss for lack of subject matter jurisdiction.

On appeal, the taxpayer argued that the 30-day period specified in section 6330(d)(1) for filing his Tax Court petition should be equitably tolled. In an opinion by Judge Erickson, the Court of Appeals for the Eighth Circuit affirmed the Tax Court’s decision. The court held that the 30-day period specified in section 6330(d)(1) is jurisdictional and therefore is not subject to equitable tolling. In reaching this conclusion, the court relied on the plain language of section 6330(d)(1), which provides: “[a] person may, within 30 days of a determination under this section, petition the Tax Court for review of such determination (and the Tax Court shall have jurisdiction with respect to such matter).” This provision, the court reasoned, “is a rare instance where Congress clearly expressed its intent to make the filing deadline jurisdictional.” According to the court, the parenthetical expression regarding the Tax Court’s jurisdiction “is clearly jurisdictional and renders the remainder of the sentence jurisdictional.” Because the 30-day period specified in section 6330(d)(1) is jurisdictional, the court concluded, it is not subject to equitable tolling.

In reaching this conclusion, the Eighth Circuit found persuasive the reasoning of the Court of Appeals for the Ninth Circuit in Duggan v. Commissioner, in which the Ninth Circuit similarly held that the 30-day period specified in section 6330(d)(1) is jurisdictional and therefore not subject to equitable tolling. Conversely, the court found unpersuasive the taxpayer’s reliance on Myers v. Commissioner, in which the D.C. Circuit held that a similarly worded 30-day limitations period in section 7623(b)(4) for filing a Tax Court petition to challenge an adverse Service determination regarding entitlement to a whistleblower award was not jurisdictional and was subject to equitable tolling.

G. Innocent Spouse

1. Congress has clarified the scope and standard of review in the Tax Court of determinations with respect to innocent spouse relief and has specified limitations periods for seeking equitable innocent spouse relief under section 6015(f).

The Taxpayer First Act amended section 6015(a) to clarify the scope and standard of review in the Tax Court of any determination with respect to a claim for innocent spouse relief, that is, any claim for relief under section 6015 from joint and several liability for tax liability arising from a joint return. Pursuant to the amendment, the Tax Court’s scope of review is limited to the administrative record and “any additional newly discovered or previously unavailable evidence.” The standard of review in the Tax Court is de novo. Prior to the amendment, the Tax Court had held that both the standard and scope of review were de novo. The amendment’s specification that the standard of review is de novo is consistent with the Tax Court’s holding in Porter, but its limitation of the scope of review departs from the holding in Porter. New section 6015(e)(7) resolves conflicting decisions in cases in which the taxpayer sought equitable innocent spouse relief under section 6015(f), some of which had held that the Tax Court’s review is limited to the administrative record and that the Tax Court’s standard of review is for abuse of discretion.

The legislation also amended section 6015(f) by adding new section 6015(f)(2), which specifies the time within which a taxpayer can assert a claim for equitable innocent spouse relief under section 6015(f). With respect to any unpaid tax, a taxpayer can assert such a claim within the limitations period provided in section 6502 on collection of tax (generally within ten years after assessment). With respect to any tax that has been paid, the taxpayer can assert a claim for equitable innocent spouse relief within period within which the taxpayer could have submitted a timely claim for refund. Generally, this period is set forth in section 6511(a)–(b). All of these amendments apply to petitions or requests for innocent spouse relief filed or pending on or after July 1, 2019, the date of enactment.

a. What does “filed or pending” mean? In Sutherland v. Commissioner, a unanimous, reviewed opinion by Judge Lauber, the Tax Court has held that section 6015(e)(7), which limits the scope of the Tax Court’s review to the administrative record (except for any newly discovered or previously unavailable evidence), applies only to petitions filed in the Tax Court on or after July 1, 2019, the date of enactment of the 2019 provision. The provision does not apply to petitions filed before that date that might still be pending on July 1, 2019.

H. Miscellaneous

1. The Tenth Circuit stirs the previously muddied water on whether a late-filed return is a “return” that will permit tax debt to be discharged in bankruptcy proceedings.

In an opinion by Judge McHugh in Mallo v. IRS (In re Mallo), the Tenth Circuit held, with respect to taxpayers in two consolidated appeals, that a late return filed after the Service had assessed tax for the year in question was not a “return” within the meaning of Bankruptcy Code section 523(a), and, consequently, the taxpayers’ federal tax liabilities were not dischargeable in bankruptcy. The facts in each appeal were substantially the same. The taxpayers failed to file returns for the years 2000 and 2001. The Service issued notices of deficiency, which the taxpayers did not challenge, and assessed tax for those years. The taxpayers subsequently filed returns, based on which the Service partially abated the tax liabilities. The taxpayers then received general discharge orders in Chapter 7 bankruptcy proceedings and filed adversary proceedings against the Service seeking a determination that their income tax liabilities for 2000 and 2001 had been discharged. Importantly, section 523(a)(1) of the Bankruptcy Code excludes from discharge any debt for a tax or customs duty

(B) with respect to which a return, or equivalent report or notice, if required—

(i) was not filed or given; or

(ii) was filed or given after the date on which such return, report, or notice was last due, under applicable law or under any extension, and after two years before the date of filing of the petition . . . .

An unnumbered paragraph at the end of Bankruptcy Code section 523(a), added by the Bankruptcy Abuse Prevention and Consumer Protection Act of 2005, provides that, for purposes of Bankruptcy Code section 523(a):

the term “return” means a return that satisfies the requirements of applicable nonbankruptcy law (including applicable filing requirements). Such term includes a return prepared under section 6020(a) of the Internal Revenue Code . . . but does not include a return made pursuant to section 6020(b) of the Internal Revenue Code . . . .

In Mallo, the Tenth Circuit examined a line of conflicting cases in which the courts had applied a four-factor test, commonly known as the Beard test, to determine whether a late-filed return constitutes a “return” for purposes of Bankruptcy Code section 523(a) and concluded that it did not need to resolve that issue. Instead, the court concluded that, unless a late return is prepared by the Service with the assistance of the taxpayer under Code section 6020(a), it is not a “return” because it does not satisfy “the requirements of applicable nonbankruptcy law (including applicable filing requirements)” within the meaning of the language added to the statute in 2005. In reaching its conclusion, the court agreed with the analysis of the Fifth Circuit in McCoy v. Miss. State Tax Comm’n (In re McCoy), in which the Fifth Circuit concluded that a late-filed Mississippi state tax return was not a return within the meaning of Bankruptcy Code section 523(a).

The Tenth Circuit’s interpretation of Bankruptcy Code section 523(a) is contrary to the Service’s interpretation, which the Service made clear to the court during the appeal. The Service’s interpretation, reflected in Chief Counsel Notice CC-2010-016, is that “[Bankruptcy Code] section 523(a) does not provide that every tax for which a return was filed late is nondischargeable.” However, according to the Chief Counsel Notice, a debt for tax assessed before the late return is filed (as in the situations before the Tenth Circuit in Mallo) is not dischargeable because “a debt assessed prior to the filing of a Form 1040 is a debt for which [a] return was not ‘filed’” within the meaning of Bankruptcy Code section 523(a)(1)(B)(i).

a. The First Circuit aligns itself with the Fifth and Tenth Circuits and applies the same analysis to a late-filed Massachusetts state income tax return. In Fahey v. Mass. Dep’t of Revenue (In re Fahey), in an opinion by Judge Kayatta, the First Circuit aligned itself with the Fifth and Tenth Circuits and concluded that a late-filed Massachusetts state income tax return was not a “return” within the meaning of Bankruptcy Code section 523(a). In a lengthy dissenting opinion, Judge Thompson argued that the majority’s conclusion was inconsistent with both the language of and policy underlying the statute: “The majority, ignoring blatant textual ambiguities and judicial precedent, instead opts to create a per se restriction that is contrary to the goal of our bankruptcy system to provide, as the former President put it in 2005, ‘fairness and compassion’ to ‘those who need it most.’”

b. A Bankruptcy Appellate Panel in the Ninth Circuit disagrees with the First, Fifth, and Tenth Circuits. The Ninth Circuit now might have an opportunity to weigh in. In United States v. Martin (In re Martin), in an opinion by Judge Kurtz, a Bankruptcy Appellate Panel in the Ninth Circuit disagreed with what it called the “literal construction” by the First, Fifth, and Ninth Circuits of the definition of the term “return” in Bankruptcy Code section 523(a). The court emphasized that the meaning of the language in the unnumbered paragraph at the end of Bankruptcy Code section 523(a), which provides that “the term ‘return’ means a return that satisfies the requirements of applicable nonbankruptcy law (including applicable filing requirements),” must be determined by taking into account the context of the surrounding words and also the context of the larger statutory scheme. Taking this context into account, the court reasoned, leads to the conclusion that the statutory language does not dictate that a late-filed return automatically renders the taxpayer’s income tax liability nondischargeable. “Why Congress would want to treat a taxpayer who files a tax return a month or a week or even a day late—possibly for reasons beyond his or her control—so much more harshly than a taxpayer who never files a tax return on his or her own behalf [and instead relies on the Service to prepare it pursuant to Internal Revenue Code section 6020(a)] is a mystery that literal construction adherents never adequately explain.”

The court also rejected the Service’s interpretation, reflected in a Chief Counsel Notice that, although not every tax for which a return is filed late is nondischargeable, a debt for tax assessed before the late return is filed (as in the situation before the court) is not dischargeable because the tax debt is established by the assessment and therefore arises before the return was filed. Instead, the court concluded that binding Ninth Circuit authority predating the 2005 amendments to Bankruptcy Code section 523(a) requires applying the four-factor Beard test to determine whether a late-filed return constitutes a “return” for purposes of Bankruptcy Code section 523(a). The court concluded that the bankruptcy court, which had held that the taxpayers’ late-filed returns were “returns” within the meaning of the statute, had relied on a version of the Beard test that did not reflect the correct legal standard. Accordingly, the court remanded to the bankruptcy court for further consideration.

c. The Eleventh Circuit declines to decide whether a late-filed return always renders a tax debt nondischargeable in bankruptcy. In Justice v. United States (In re Justice), in an opinion by Judge Anderson, the Eleventh Circuit declined to adopt what it called the “one-day-late” rule embraced by the First, Fifth, and Tenth Circuits because it concluded that doing so was unnecessary to reach the conclusion that the taxpayer’s federal income tax liability was nondischargeable in bankruptcy. The taxpayer filed his federal income tax returns for four tax years after the Service had assessed tax for those years and between three and six years late. The court concluded that it need not adopt the approach of the First, Fifth, and Tenth Circuits because, even if a late-filed return can sometimes qualify as a return for purposes of Bankruptcy Code section 523(a), a return must satisfy the four-factor Beard test in order to constitute a return for this purpose, and the taxpayer’s returns failed to satisfy this test. One of the four factors of the Beard test is that there must be an honest and reasonable attempt to satisfy the requirements of the tax law. The Eleventh Circuit joined the majority of the other circuits in concluding that delinquency in filing a tax return is relevant to whether the taxpayer made such an honest and reasonable attempt. “Failure to file a timely return, at least without a legitimate excuse or explanation, evinces the lack of a reasonable effort to comply with the law.” The taxpayer in this case, the court stated, filed his returns many years late, did so only after the Service had issued notices of deficiency and assessed his tax liability, and offered no justification for his late filing. Accordingly, the court held, he had not filed a “return” for purposes of Bankruptcy Code section 523(a) and his tax debt was therefore nondischargeable.

d. The Ninth Circuit holds that a taxpayer’s tax debt cannot be discharged in bankruptcy without weighing in on the issue whether a late-filed return always renders a tax debt nondischargeable. In Smith v. United States (In re Smith), in an opinion by Judge Christen, the Ninth Circuit held that the tax liability of the taxpayer, who filed his federal income tax return seven years after it was due and three years after the Service had assessed the tax, was not dischargeable in bankruptcy. The government did not assert the “one-day-late” rule embraced by the First, Fifth, and Tenth Circuits. Accordingly, the Ninth Circuit looked to its prior decision in United States v. Hatton (In re Hatton), issued prior to the 2005 amendments to the Bankruptcy Code on which the First, Fifth, and Tenth Circuits relied. In Hatton, the Ninth Circuit had adopted the four-factor Beard test to determine whether the taxpayer had filed a “return” for purposes of Bankruptcy Code section 523(a). The fourth factor of the Beard test is that there must be an honest and reasonable attempt to satisfy the requirements of the tax law. The Ninth Circuit concluded that the taxpayer had not made such an attempt:

Here, Smith failed to make a tax filing until seven years after his return was due and three years after the IRS went to the trouble of calculating a deficiency and issuing an assessment. Under these circumstances, Smith’s “belated acceptance of responsibility” was not a reasonable attempt to comply with the tax code.

The court noted that other circuits similarly had held that post-assessment filings of returns were not honest and reasonable attempts to satisfy the requirements of the tax law but refrained from deciding whether any post-assessment filing could be treated as such an honest and reasonable attempt.

e. The Third Circuit also declines to consider whether a late-filed return always renders a tax debt nondischargeable and instead applies the Beard test. In Giacchi v. United States (In re Giacchi), in an opinion by Judge Roth, the Third Circuit held that the tax liability of the taxpayer, who filed his federal income tax returns for 2000, 2001, and 2002 after the Service had assessed tax for those years, was not dischargeable in bankruptcy. The court declined to consider whether the “one-day-late” rule embraced by the First, Fifth, and Tenth Circuits is correct. Instead, the court applied the four-factor Beard test to determine whether the taxpayer had filed a “return” for purposes of Bankruptcy Code section 523(a). The fourth factor of the Beard test is that there must be an honest and reasonable attempt to satisfy the requirements of the tax law. The court stated:

Forms filed after their due dates and after an IRS assessment rarely, if ever, qualify as an honest or reasonable attempt to satisfy the tax law. This is because the purpose of a tax return is for the taxpayer to provide information to the government regarding the amount of tax due . . . Once the IRS assesses the taxpayer’s liability, a subsequent filing can no longer serve the tax return’s purpose, and thus could not be an honest and reasonable attempt to comply with the tax law.

f. The Eleventh Circuit has rejected the one-day late approach to determining whether a late-filed return renders a tax debt nondischargeable in bankruptcy. In Mass. Dep’t of Revenue v. Shek (In re Shek), in a very thorough opinion by Judge Anderson, the Eleventh Circuit held that a tax debt reflected on a late-filed Massachusetts tax return was discharged in bankruptcy. In reaching this conclusion, the court rejected the “one-day-late” rule embraced by the First, Fifth, and Tenth Circuits. The taxpayer filed his 2008 Massachusetts income tax return seven months late. The return reflected a tax liability of $11,489. Six years later, he filed for Chapter 7 bankruptcy in Florida and received an order of discharge in January 2016. When the Massachusetts Department of Revenue subsequently sought to collect the tax debt, the taxpayer filed a motion to reopen his bankruptcy case to determine whether his tax debt had been discharged. The bankruptcy court held that his tax debt had been discharged.

In affirming this conclusion, the Eleventh Circuit focused on the definition of the term “return” in Bankruptcy Code section 523(a), which provides that, for purposes of Bankruptcy Code section 523(a):

the term “return” means a return that satisfies the requirements of applicable nonbankruptcy law (including applicable filing requirements). Such term includes a return prepared pursuant to section 6020(a) of the Internal Revenue Code . . . but does not include a return made pursuant to section 6020(b) of the Internal Revenue Code . . . .

The court emphasized that canons of statutory construction dictate the need to give effect to every word of a statute when possible and that the term “applicable filing requirements” must mean something different than all filing requirements. Further, the court reasoned, adopting the “one-day-late” approach and holding that the tax liability reflected on every late-filed return is not dischargeable would render a near nullity the language of Bankruptcy Code section 523(a)(1)(B)(ii), which contemplates that the tax liability on a late-filed return can be discharged as long as the late return is not filed within the two-year period preceding the filing of the bankruptcy petition.

The court also rejected the Massachusetts Department of Revenue’s argument that the taxpayer’s return did not constitute a return under Massachusetts law (which the court viewed as included among “the requirements of applicable nonbankruptcy law”). After rejecting the one-day late approach, the court held that the taxpayer’s return was a “return” whether the relevant test is the four-factor Beard test or instead the definition of a return under Massachusetts law. Accordingly, the court held, the taxpayer’s tax liability had been discharged.

2. Micro-Captive insurance transactions are “transactions of interest” that might be on their way to being listed.

Notice 2016-66 identifies certain captive insurance arrangements, referred to as “micro-captive transactions,” as transactions of interest for purposes of Regulation section 1.6011-4(b)(6) and sections 6111 and 6112. Generally, these arrangements involve a person who owns an insured business and that same person, or a related person, also owns an interest in the insurance company providing coverage. The insured business deducts the premiums paid to the insurance company, and the insurance company, by making the election under section 831(b) to be taxed only on taxable investment income, excludes the premiums from gross income. An insurance company making the section 831(b) election can receive up to $2.2 million in premiums annually (adjusted for inflation after 2015). The Notice describes the coverage under these arrangements as having one or more of the following characteristics:

  1. the coverage involves an implausible risk;
  2. the coverage does not match a business need or risk of Insured;
  3. the description of the scope of the coverage in the Contract is vague, ambiguous, or illusory; or
  4. the coverage duplicates coverage provided to Insured by an unrelated, commercial insurance company, and the policy with the commercial insurer often has a far smaller premium.

The Treasury Department and the Service believe these transactions have a potential for tax avoidance or evasion but lack enough information to determine whether the transactions should be identified specifically as a tax avoidance transaction. Transactions that are the same as, or substantially similar to, the transaction described in section 2.01 of the Notice are identified as “transactions of interest” for purposes of Regulation section 1.6011-4(b)(6) and sections 6111 and 6112 effective November 1, 2016. Persons entering into these transactions after November 1, 2006, must disclose the transaction as described in Regulation section 1.6011-4.

a. Participants in micro-captive insurance transactions have until May 1, 2017 to disclose their participation in years for which returns were filed before November 1, 2016. Notice 2017-08 extends the due date for participants to disclose their participation in the micro-captive insurance transactions described in Notice 2016-66. Generally, under Regulation section 1.6011-4(e)(2)(i), if a transaction becomes a transaction of interest or a listed transaction after a taxpayer has filed a return reflecting the taxpayer’s participation in the transaction, then the taxpayer must disclose the transaction for any year for which the limitations period on assessment was open on the date the transaction was identified as a listed transaction or transaction of interest within 90 calendar days after the date on which the transaction was identified. This meant that, for open years for which returns already had been filed on November 1, 2016 (the date on which Notice 2016-66 was issued), disclosures were due on January 30, 2017. In Notice 2017-08, the Service has extended the due date from January 30 to May 1, 2017.

b. Sixth Circuit sides with the Service against micro-captive advisor’s attack on Notice 2016-66 and “reportable transactions.” In CIC Services, LLC v. IRS, in a 2–1 decision reflected in an opinion by Judge Clay, the Court of Appeals for the Sixth Circuit affirmed the district court’s dismissal of a lawsuit against the Service challenging the Service’s categorization of certain micro-captive insurance arrangements as “reportable transactions” in Notice 2016-66. The plaintiff, CIC Services, LLC, advises taxpayers with respect to micro-captive insurance arrangements. Generally, these arrangements involve a taxpayer who owns an insured business while that same taxpayer or a related person also owns an interest in an insurance company providing coverage to the business. The insured business deducts the premiums paid to the insurance company, and the insurance company, by making the election under section 831(b) to be taxed only on taxable investment income, excludes the premiums from gross income. In 2019, an insurance company making the section 831(b) election could receive up to $2.3 million in excludable premiums. Back in 2016, the Service issued Notice 2016-66, which identified certain of these micro-captive insurance arrangements as abusive and thus “transactions of interest” for purposes of the “reportable transaction” rules of sections 6111 and 6112 and Regulation section 1.6011-4(b)(6). Significant penalties can be imposed upon taxpayers and their material advisors for failing to comply with the “reportable transaction” rules.

The plaintiff took offense at the Service’s position regarding micro-captives and filed suit in the District Court for the Eastern District of Tennessee to enjoin enforcement of Notice 2016-66. The plaintiff alleged that the Service had promulgated Notice 2016-66 in violation of the APA, and the Congressional Review Act. The Service countered that the plaintiff’s complaint was barred by the Anti-Injunction Act and the tax exception to the Declaratory Judgment Act (together, the AIA). Generally, the AIA bars lawsuits filed “for the purpose of restraining the assessment or collection of any tax” by the Service. Responding to the Service, the plaintiff characterized its suit as one relating to tax reporting requirements, not tax assessment and collection. Plaintiff therefore contended that its lawsuit was not barred by the AIA. The Service, on the other hand, argued that the case ultimately was about tax assessment and collection because the penalties imposed under the “reportable transaction” regime are treated as taxes for federal income tax purposes. The plaintiff cited as support for its argument the Supreme Court’s decision in Direct Marketing Ass’n v. Brohl, which allowed a lawsuit to proceed against Colorado state tax authorities despite the Tax Injunction Act (TIA). The TIA, which protects state tax assessments and collections, is modeled on the AIA. The Service, on the other hand, argued that the decision of the Court of Appeals for the D.C. Circuit in Florida Bankers Ass’n v. U.S. Dep’t of the Treasury, which distinguished Direct Marketing, reflected the proper analysis. The court in Florida Bankers Ass’n held that the AIA applied to bar a suit seeking to enjoin the Service’s enforcement of certain penalties. The suit was barred by the AIA, according to the court in Florida Bankers Ass’n, because the penalties at issue in that case were treated as federal income taxes for assessment and collection purposes, unlike the action challenged in Direct Marketing.

Writing for the majority, Judge Clay rejected the plaintiff’s Direct Marketing argument and agreed with the Service’s Florida Bankers Ass’n argument. Judge Clay reasoned that, like the penalties at issue in Florida Bankers Ass’n, the “reportable transaction” penalties are located in Chapter 68, Subchapter B of the Code and thus are treated as taxes for federal income tax purposes. Therefore, the decision of the D.C. Circuit in Florida Bankers Ass’n is directly on point. Judge Clay also ruled that the plaintiff’s lawsuit did not fall within any of the exceptions to the AIA. Hence, the AIA barred the plaintiff’s lawsuit because the plaintiff, by seeking to enjoin enforcement of Notice 2016-66, is indirectly attempting to thwart the Service’s assessment and collection of a tax.

Judge Nalhandian dissented and would have held that the suit was not barred by the AIA. He reasoned that the suit involved a challenge to a tax reporting requirement, albeit one with a penalty attached for noncompliance, and that the AIA does not bar challenges to tax reporting requirements.

c. The Service is making time-limited settlement offers to those with micro-captive insurance arrangements. The Service has announced that it has begun sending time-limited settlement offers to certain taxpayers with micro-captive insurance arrangements. The Service has done so following three recent decisions of the Tax Court that disallowed the tax benefits associated with these arrangements. The terms of the offer, which must be accepted within 30 days of the date of the letter making the offer, generally are as follows: (1) the Service will deny 90% of any deductions claimed for captive insurance premiums; (2) the captive insurance company will not be required to recognize taxable income for received premiums; (3) the captive must already be liquidated, will be required to liquidate, or agree to a deemed liquidation that results in dividend income for the shareholders; (4) accuracy-related penalties are reduced to a rate of ten percent and can be reduced to five percent or zero percent if certain conditions are met; (5) if none of the parties to the micro-captive insurance transaction disclosed it as required by Notice 2016-66, a single penalty of $5,000 will be applied under section 6707A (Penalty for Failure to Include Reportable Transaction Information with Return); and (6) additions to tax for failure to file or pay tax under section 6651 and failure to pay estimated income tax under sections 6654 and 6655 may apply.

d. Approximately 80% of taxpayers receiving micro-captive insurance settlement offers accepted them. The Service is establishing 12 new examination teams that are expected to open audits related to thousands of taxpayers. The Service previously announced that it had begun sending time-limited settlement offers to certain taxpayers with micro-captive insurance arrangements. The Service has now announced that “[n]early 80% of taxpayers who received offer letters elected to accept the settlement terms.” The announcement also informs taxpayers that “the IRS is establishing 12 new examination teams that are expected to open audits related to thousands of taxpayers in coming months.” Finally, the announcement reminds taxpayers that Notice 2016-66 requires disclosure of micro-captive insurance transactions with the IRS Office of Tax Shelter Analysis and that failure to do so can result in significant penalties.

The Authors understand that, in March 2020, the Service issued Letter 6336 to thousands of taxpayers seeking information about their participation in micro-captive insurance transactions. The letters initially asked for a response by May 4, 2020, which subsequently was extended to June 4, 2020.

e. The Supreme Court will consider a taxpayer’s challenge to Notice 2016-66. The Supreme Court has granted the taxpayer’s petition for a writ of certiorari in CIC Services, in which the Court of Appeals for the Sixth Circuit dismissed a lawsuit challenging the Service’s categorization of certain micro-captive insurance arrangements as “reportable transactions” in Notice 2016-66. According to the Court’s grant of the writ, the question presented is: “Whether the Anti-Injunction Act’s bar on lawsuits for the purpose of restraining the assessment or collection of taxes also bars challenges to unlawful regulatory mandates issued by administrative agencies that are not taxes.”

3. You Say “FBAR.” We say “FUBAR.” Although Treasury has failed to update relevant FBAR regulations, the penalty for willful violations is not capped at $100,000 per account, says the Federal Circuit.

One of the issues in Norman v. United States was whether substantial foreign bank account reporting (FBAR) penalties assessed by the Service should have been reduced. Under 31 U.S.C. section 5321(a)(5)(A), the Secretary of the Treasury “may impose” a penalty for FBAR violations, and pursuant to administrative orders, the authority to impose FBAR penalties has been delegated by the Secretary to the Service. Further, under the current version of 31 U.S.C. section 5321(a)(5)(B)(i), the normal penalty for an FBAR violation is $10,000 per offending account; however, the penalty for a willful FBAR violation “shall be increased to the greater of” $100,000 or 50% of the balance in the offending account at the time of the violation. These minimum and maximum penalties for willful FBAR violations were changed by the American Jobs Creation Act of 2004 (AJCA). The prior version of 31 U.S.C. section 5321(a)(5) provided that the penalty for willful FBAR violations was the greater of $25,000 or the balance of the unreported account up to $100,000. Treasury regulations issued under the pre-AJCA version of 31 U.S.C. section 5321(a)(5), reflecting the law at the time, capped the penalty for willful FBAR violations to $100,000 per account.

In Norman, the government assessed a penalty of $803,500 for failure to file an FBAR in 2007 with respect to a Swiss bank account. The taxpayer argued that the “may impose” language of the relevant statute, 31 U.S.C. section 5321(a)(5), provides the Secretary of the Treasury with discretion to determine the amount of assessable FBAR penalties and that, because the outdated regulations had not been amended to reflect the AJCA’s increase in the minimum and maximum FBAR penalties, the Service’s authority was limited to the amount prescribed by the existing regulations. The court reasoned that the amended statute, which provides that the penalty amount for willful FBAR violations shall be increased to the greater of $100,000 or 50% of the account value, is mandatory and removed the Treasury Department’s discretion to provide for a smaller penalty by regulation. According to the court, the statute gives the Treasury Department discretion whether to impose a penalty in particular cases, but not discretion to set a cap on the penalty that is different than the cap set forth in the statute. Several federal district courts and the Court of Federal Claims have considered this issue and reached different conclusions.

a. And another BIG government victory in the FBAR-FUBAR war; however, an appeal to the Eleventh Circuit was filed almost before the ink was dry on the District Court’s decision. In United States v. Schwarzbaum, a significant FBAR case, the District Court for the Southern District of Florida (Judge Bloom) upheld the Service’s imposition of almost $13 million in penalties for willful FBAR violations across the years 2007–2009, although the court also ruled that no penalties should be imposed for 2006. The taxpayer, a German and U.S. citizen, owned multiple foreign bank accounts across the years in issue. The largest accounts were given to the taxpayer by his German father and were held in Switzerland. The taxpayer also had a smaller account that he had established at a bank in Costa Rica. The taxpayer credibly testified that for the years 2006–2009 he had been erroneously advised by his tax return preparers that he did not need to report foreign held bank accounts provided the accounts had no U.S. connection. For this reason, Judge Bloom found that the taxpayer’s alleged FBAR violations for 2006 were not willful.

In 2007, however, the taxpayer self-prepared an FBAR disclosure for his account in Costa Rica. The Costa Rican account had been funded with money accumulated by the taxpayer in the United States. The taxpayer testified that he thus believed the Costa Rican account had a “U.S. connection” and, accordingly, was the only account subject to FBAR reporting obligations. The Service argued, though, that the 2007 instructions to the FBAR disclosure clearly state that all foreign bank accounts of taxpayers should be reported. The instructions do not condition a taxpayer’s FBAR disclosure obligation on a “U.S. connection” to the account. Therefore, the Service argued, and Judge Bloom agreed, that despite the (erroneous) advice of his tax return preparers, the taxpayer’s FBAR violations for the years 2007–2009 were willful. Judge Bloom reasoned that after 2006 the taxpayer either had constructive knowledge that his tax return preparer’s advice was erroneous, or the taxpayer recklessly disregarded his FBAR obligations. In either case, Judge Bloom held that a willfulness finding was appropriate and that the Service’s imposition of roughly $13 million (approximately) in FBAR penalties against the taxpayer for the years 2007–2009 was justified.

Contrary to the cases mentioned above, the taxpayer apparently did not argue that the Service’s assessed FBAR penalties conflicted with the Treasury Department’s outdated regulations. Instead, the taxpayer argued that even if his FBAR violations for 2007–2009 were found to be willful, the $13 million (approximately) penalty assessment violated the Eighth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution. The Eighth Amendment provides that “[e]xcessive bail shall not be required, nor excessive fines imposed, nor cruel and unusual punishments inflicted.” The taxpayer argued that the FBAR penalties imposed upon him by the Service were “fines” and were “excessive.”

In response to the taxpayer’s Eighth Amendment argument, Judge Bloom ruled that the FBAR penalties, like most tax penalties, are remedial, not punitive, in nature. In other words, the FBAR penalties are designed to safeguard the revenue of the United States and to reimburse the Service and the Treasury Department for the expense of investigating and uncovering the taxpayer’s circumvention of U.S. tax laws. Therefore, Judge Bloom held, the FBAR penalties imposed upon the taxpayer are not “fines” subject to the Eighth Amendment. Because the court held that the FBAR penalties are not “fines,” the court did not rule on whether the approximately $13 million in penalties imposed upon the taxpayer were “excessive.” The taxpayer has filed an appeal with the Eleventh Circuit.

4. The Service has extended many filing and payment deadlines to July 15, 2020.

Following the national emergency declared in response to the COVID-19 pandemic, the Service previously had exercised its authority under section 7508A, which authorizes the Secretary of the Treasury to postpone the time for performing certain acts in federally declared disaster areas, to extend several filing and payment deadlines. In Notice 2020-23, the Service announced that all persons with a federal tax payment obligation or form filing obligation due to be performed on or after April 1, 2020 and before July 15, 2020 are considered affected by COVID-19 for purposes of section 7508A. The Notice extends specified filing and payment obligations to July 15, 2020, including the deadline to file Form 1040 series returns (individuals), Form 1120 series returns (corporations), Form 1065 (partnerships), Form 1041 (income tax return of trusts and estates), Form 706 (estate and generation-skipping transfer tax return), Form 709 (gift and generation-skipping transfer tax return), and Form 990-T (unrelated business income of tax-exempt organizations). It also extends to July 15, 2020, the payment deadline for payments of income tax, estate tax, gift tax, Generation-Skipping Transfer tax, Unrelated Business Income Tax, and quarterly estimated tax payments. This includes the quarterly estimated tax payment due on June 15, 2020. The Notice goes further, however, and extends to July 15, 2020, the time for taking specified time-sensitive actions, including filing a claim for refund (e.g., 2016 refund claims), bringing suit for a refund, and filing a petition with the Tax Court. Finally, the Notice extends the time for the Service to perform time-sensitive acts by 30 days if the act must be performed on or after April 6, 2020 and before July 15, 2020, such as assessment of tax.

5. Tax Court retains jurisdiction in a Section 7345 passport revocation case to review the Service’s certification of a taxpayer’s “seriously delinquent” tax liability, but finds case is moot.

Section 7345, which addresses the revocation or denial of passports for seriously delinquent tax debts, was enacted in 2015 in section 32101(a) of the Fixing America’s Surface Transportation Act. It provides that, if the Service certifies that an individual has a “seriously delinquent tax debt,” the Secretary of the Treasury must notify the Secretary of State “for action with respect to denial, revocation, or limitation of a passport.” In general, a seriously delinquent tax debt is an unpaid tax liability in excess of $50,000 for which a lien or levy has been imposed. A taxpayer who seeks to challenge such certification may petition the Tax Court to determine if it was made erroneously. If the Tax Court finds the certification was either made in error or that the Service has since reversed its certification, the court may then notify the State Department that the revocation of the taxpayer’s passport should be cancelled.

In Ruesch v. Commissioner, a case of first impression, the Tax Court interpreted the requirements of section 7345. Under the facts of the case, the Service had assessed $160,000 in penalties against Ms. Ruesch under section 6038 for failing to file proper information returns for a period of years. Thereafter, the Service sent a final notice of intent to levy, and Ms. Ruesch properly appealed the penalty amounts with the IRS’s Collection Appeals Program (CAP). In a series of errors, the Service mistakenly misclassified the CAP appeal as a CDP hearing. Committing yet further errors, the Service failed to properly record Ms. Ruesch’s later request for a CDP hearing and never offered Ms. Ruesch her CDP hearing. The Service then certified Ms. Ruesch’s liability to the Secretary of State as a “seriously delinquent tax debt” under section 7345(b). Discovering their many errors as well as the oversight of Ms. Ruesch’s timely requested a CDP hearing, the Service determined her tax debt was not “seriously delinquent” and reversed the certification. The Service then notified the Secretary of State of its reversal.

The Tax Court (Judge Lauber) held that, while the Tax Court had jurisdiction to review Ms. Ruesch’s challenge to the Service’s certification of her tax liabilities as being a “seriously delinquent tax debt,” the controversy was moot because the Service had reversed its certification as being erroneous. Under section 7345, the Tax Court’s jurisdiction in passport revocation cases is limited to reviewing the Service’s certification of the taxpayer’s liabilities as “seriously delinquent.” Thus, the only relief the Tax Court may grant is to issue an order to the Service to notify the Secretary of State that the Service’s certification was in error. Since the Service had already notified the Secretary of State of the error, the Tax Court could not offer any additional relief. Judge Lauber, therefore, found the controversy was not ripe to be heard and the issues were moot.

6. Sixth Circuit reverses District Court holding that the government was barred by the doctrine of judicial estoppel from challenging the taxpayer’s method of calculating its R&D credit.

The main issue in Audio Technica U.S., Inc. v. United States was whether a District Court for the Northern District of Ohio had erred in holding that the Service was judicially estopped from challenging the fixed-base percentage that Audio Technica used in calculating its research and development (R&D) credit under section 41. In general, under section 41(a)(1), the R&D credit is equal to 20% of the excess of the taxpayer’s annual qualified research expenses over the “base amount.” The base amount is generally equal to the taxpayer’s average gross receipts over the previous four years multiplied by a “fixed-base percentage.” This percentage is arrived at by adding up the total qualified research expenses for the relevant five-year period and then dividing that amount by aggregate gross receipts for the same period. The lower the fixed-base percentage, the higher the R&D credit. Audio Technica claimed an R&D credit for several years prior to the years in issue. With respect to those previous years, the Service twice agreed to stipulated settlements of litigation in the Tax Court in which Audio Technica used a fixed-base percentage of 0.92%. For the later tax years at issue in this case, Audio Technica reported R&D credits again using a fixed-base percentage of 0.92%. However, the Service disallowed the credits for these years. Audio Technica paid the tax that the Service asserted was due, filed a claim for refund, and ultimately brought a refund action in federal district court.

At trial, Audio Technica asserted that, because the Service had twice agreed with the 0.92% fixed-base percentage in previous years, the doctrine of judicial estoppel applied to estop or prevent the Service from challenging the fixed-base percentage used by Audio Technica in the years at issue. The trial court agreed with Audio Technica on the basis that the Tax Court had approved the previous settlement agreements in which the parties had stipulated that a fixed-base percentage of 0.92% applied.

In an opinion by Judge Clay, the Court of Appeals for the Sixth Circuit disagreed and held that the Tax Court’s orders memorializing the settlement agreements did not constitute judicial acceptance of the facts to which the parties had stipulated in the settlement agreements. In general, the doctrine of judicial estoppel prevents a litigant from asserting a legal position that is contrary to a legal position that the same litigant asserted under oath in a prior proceeding and that was accepted by the court. Applying this principle, the Sixth Circuit held that the doctrine of judicial estoppel did not bar the government from challenging Audio Technica’s fixed-base percentage because the previous litigation in the Tax Court had been resolved through settlements in which there had been no judicial acceptance of the Service’s position. The court emphasized that a settlement agreement, even in the form of an agreed order, does not constitute judicial acceptance of the terms contained in the agreement.

The court also declined to accept Audio Technica’s additional argument that judicial estoppel should apply pursuant to the court’s prior holding in Reynolds v. Commissioner, in which the court had applied the doctrine when the parties previously had entered into a settlement agreement approved by the bankruptcy court. The court rejected this argument on the basis of the unique nature of bankruptcy settlements. In bankruptcy proceedings (as opposed to an ordinary civil proceeding), a compromise between a debtor and his or her creditors must be carefully examined by the bankruptcy court to protect the interests of third parties and must be determined to be fair and equitable before the bankruptcy court will approve it. The bankruptcy court has an affirmative obligation to apprise itself of the underlying facts before it can approve a compromise. Here, the court reasoned, the Tax Court did not have the same obligation and, because the Tax Court proceedings ended with a settlement between the Service and Audio Technica that did not require the Tax Court to accept the parties’ litigating positions, judicial estoppel did not apply.

Finally, the court noted that, even if judicial estoppel could apply, the Tax Court never relied on or approved the 0.92% fixed-base percentage. The stipulated decisions entered in the prior proceedings referred only to total dollar amounts and did not refer to the 0.92% fixed-base percentage. Based on this reasoning, the Sixth Circuit held that the Service was not judicially estopped from redetermining Audio Technica’s fixed-base percentage for the years at issue.

7. The Service has announced that individuals can e-file amended returns on Form 1040-X for 2019.

Individuals who wish to amend a federal income tax return by filing Form 1040-X historically have had to mail the form to the Service. The Service has announced that individuals now can e-file Form 1040-X using available software products to amend Forms 1040 or 1040-SR for 2019. Whether the ability to e-file amended returns will be expanded to other years is not entirely clear. The announcement states that “[a]dditional improvements are planned for the future.” Taxpayers still will have the option to mail a paper version of Form 1040-X.

XI. Withholding and Excise Taxes

A. Employment Taxes

1. Whether it’s a good idea or not, no penalty will be imposed for failing to deposit the employer’s share of Social Security tax.

In general, employers must withhold taxes due under the Federal Insurance Contributions Act (FICA). FICA taxes are a combination of Social Security taxes and Medicare taxes which are deducted or withheld by an employer from an employee’s pay. Such withheld funds are remitted by the employer to the Service on behalf of the employee. Correspondingly, an employer is responsible for paying its share of FICA taxes to the Service including Social Security taxes and Medicare taxes. These employer payments generally are due to be remitted to the Service on a semi-weekly or monthly basis by electronic funds transfer. The CARES Act provides that remittance of the employer’s share of both the Social Security portion of FICA tax and of the Social Security portion of Railroad Retirement Act tax incurred in 2020 may be deferred. Thus, FICA payments previously due between March 27, 2020, and before January 1, 2021, may now be paid in two equal installments. The first half of the payment may be deferred until December 31, 2021, and payment of the second half of the liability may be deferred until December 31, 2022. It is important to note that this deferral is not available to employers that have had debt forgiven with respect to the loans made available through the Small Business Administration pursuant to the CARES Act.

a. Employers whose PPP loans are forgiven can defer depositing the employer’s Share of Social Security tax. The Paycheck Protection Program Flexibility Act of 2020 (PPP Flexibility Act) amended the CARES Act to remove the rule that employers whose loans authorized by the CARES Act and made through the Small Business Administration (commonly referred to as PPP loans) are forgiven cannot defer depositing the employer’s share of Social Security tax. Therefore, an employer that receives a PPP loan can defer the payment and deposit of the employer’s share of Social Security tax, even if the loan is forgiven. This rule is effective as if it had been included in the CARES Act.

b. The Service has issued guidance on deferring the deposit and payment of the employer’s share of Social Security tax in the form of FAQs on its website. The Service has issued guidance on deferring the deposit and payment of the employer’s share of Social Security taxes in the form of FAQs on its website. Among other guidance, the FAQs clarify that self-employed individuals can defer paying 50% of the Social Security tax on net earnings from self-employment income for the period beginning on March 27, 2020, and ending December 31, 2020.

B. Self-Employment Taxes

There were no significant developments regarding this topic during 2020.

C. Excise Taxes

There were no significant developments regarding this topic during 2020.

XII. Tax Legislation

A. Enacted

1. A families second coronavirus response act just wouldn’t do. Congress has enacted the Families First Coronavirus Response Act.

The Families First Coronavirus Response Act was signed by the President on March 18, 2020. Among other features, the legislation provides businesses with tax credits to cover certain costs of providing employees with required paid sick leave and expanded family and medical leave, for reasons related to COVID-19, from April 1 through December 31, 2020.

2. The Coronavirus Aid, Relief, And Economic Security Act might just prove that Congress really CARES.

The Coronavirus Aid, Relief, And Economic Security Act (CARES Act), enacted on March 27, 2020, in response to the coronavirus (COVID-19) pandemic, is economic stimulus legislation that provides, among other things, targeted tax relief for individuals and businesses including (1) a one-time rebate to taxpayers; (2) modification of the tax treatment of certain retirement fund withdrawals and charitable contributions; (3) a delay of employer payroll taxes and taxes paid by certain corporations; and (4) other changes to the tax treatment of business income, interest deductions, and net operating losses. Another important aspect of the CARES Act is that it reverses or temporarily suspends certain of the more significant changes to the Code enacted by the TCJA.

3. Congress has enacted the Paycheck Protection Program Flexibility Act of 2020.

The Paycheck Protection Program Flexibility Act of 2020 (PPP Flexibility Act), enacted on June 5, 2020, modifies several aspects of the forgivable Paycheck Protection Program loans authorized by the CARES Act and made available through the Small Business Administration (commonly referred to as PPP loans), including a repeal of the rule that precluded employers whose PPP loans are forgiven from deferring deposits of the employer’s share of Social Security tax.

4. The 2021 Consolidated Appropriations Act makes some provisions permanent and temporarily extends others.

The Consolidated Appropriations Act, 2021 was signed by the President on December 27, 2020. This legislation made permanent several Code provisions that previously had been temporarily extended for many years, temporarily extended several expiring provisions, and provided tax relief to those in areas affected by certain natural disasters.

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